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CONTENTS 1.

The Living World

Biological Classification

Plant Kingdom

16-26

Animal Kingdom

27-37

Morphology of Flowering Plants

38-47

Anatomy of Flowering Plants

48-59

Structural Organisation in Animals

60-69

Cell: The Unit of Life

70-80

Biomolecules

81-88

10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 11. Transport in Plants

1-7 8-15

89-95 96-102

12. Mineral Nutrition

103-110

13. Photosynthesis

111-120

14. Respiration in Plants

121-128

15. Plant Growth and Development

129-136

16. Digestion and Absorption

137-145

17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases

146-153

18. Body Fluids and Circulation

154-161

19. Excretory Products and their Elimination

162-169

20. Locomotion and Movement

170-178

21. Neural Control and Coordination

179-188

22. Chemical Coordination and Integration

189-196

EBD_7209

23. Reproduction in Organisms

197-203

24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

204-211

25. Human Reproduction

212-225

26. Reproductive Health

226-232

27. Principles of Inheritance & Variation

233-241

28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance

242-251

29. Evolution

252-260

30. Human Health and Disease

261-269

31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

270-275

32. Microbes in Human Welfare

276-281

33. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes

282-288

34. Biotechnology and its Applications

289-294

35. Organisms and Population

295-302

36. Ecosystem

303-309

37. Biodiversity and its Conservation

310-315

38. Environmental Issues

316-323

HINTS & SOLUTION

S-1- S-212

MOCK TESTS Mock Test-1 with solutions

MT- 1- MT- 10

Mock Test-2 with solutions

MT- 11- MT- 20

Mock Test-3 with solutions

MT- 21- MT- 30

Mock Test-4 with solutions

MT- 31- MT- 42

Mock Test-5 with solutions

MT- 43- MT- 55

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Which of the following are unique features of living organisms? (a) Growth and reproduction (b) Reproduction and ability to sense environment (c) Metabolism and interaction (d) All of the above Cell division occurs _______ in plants and _______ in animals. (a) continuously, only upto a certain age (b) only upto a certain age, continuously (c) continuously, never (d) once, twice In unicellular organisms, with respect to growth and reproduction following can be true. 1. Growth and Reproduction are inclusive events. 2. unicellular organisms grow by cell division. 3. Both are exclusive (a) Only 1 correct (b) Only 2 correct (c) Both 1 and 2 correct (d) Only 3 correct In majority of higher animals and plants, _____ and _____ are mutually exclusive events. (a) growth; nutrition (b) nutrition; consciousness (c) growth; reproduction (d) reproduction; consciousness Non-living objects1. Grows from external surface by collecting substance on it. 2. Grows from internal surface like living. 3. Do not grow at all. Which of the followings option is correct? (a) Only 1 correct (b) Only 2 correct (c) Only 3 correct (d) All 1, 2, 3 correct In multicellular organisms, _____ refers to the production of progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents. (a) growth (b) reproduction (c) metabolism (d) consciousness

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Chapter

The Living World

The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by _____. (a) budding (b) fission (c) regeneration (d) fragmentation Which of the following factors exclusively affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals? (a) Water (b) Temperature (c) Photoperiod (d) All of these The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in our body is known as (a) metabolism (b) growth (c) regeneration (d) reproduction Which of the following term is used to refer the number of varieties of plants and animals on earth ? (a) Taxonomy (b) Identification (c) Biodiversity (d) Classification ICBN stands for (a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (b) International Congress of Biological Names (c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (d) Indian Congress of Biological Names Binomial nomenclature means (a) one name given by two scientists. (b) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet. (c) two names, one latinized, other of a person. (d) two names of same plant. In printed scientific names, only the ______ is capitalized. (a) class (b) species (c) genus (d) family Each category of taxonomic hierarchy refers to as a unit of ______. (a) systematic (b) identification (c) nomenclature (d) classification Systematics refers to the (a) identification and classification of plants and animals. (b) nomenclature and identification of plants and animals. (c) diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship. (d) different kinds of organisms and their classification.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20. 21.

22.

23.

24.

25. 26. 27. 28.

Taxon is a (a) unit of classification. (b) species. (c) highest rank of classification. (d) group of closely related organisms. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to (a) explain the origin of living organsims. (b) trace the evolution of living organsims. (c) name the living organisms. (d) facilitate identification of unknown organisms. Which of the following is not a characteristic of life? (a) Reproduction (b) Complex chemical organization (c) Adaptation to environmental changes (d) Differentiation from cells to tissues Families are characterized on which of the following features of plant species? (a) External morphology (b) Anatomy of parts (c) Vegetative and reproductive parts (d) Seasonal similarities and variations The order generally ends with (a) ales (b) aceae (c) eae (d) none of these Which of the following taxonomic aid provides information for the identification of names of species found in an area? (a) Monograph (b) Manual (c) Flora (d) Periodical Which one of the taxonomic aids can give comprehensive account of complete compiled information of any one genus or family at a particular time? (a) Taxonomic key (b) Flora (c) Herbarium (d) Monograph Which one of the following taxonomical aid is used for identification of plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities? (a) Flora (b) Keys (c) Monographs (d) Catalogues Herbarium is a (a) garden where medicinal plants are grown. (b) garden where herbaceous plants are grown. (c) dry garden. (d) chemical to kill plants. The famous botanical garden ‘Kew’ is located in (a) England (b) Lucknow (c) Berlin (d) Australia Keys are generally _______ in nature. (a) physical (b) chemical (c) analytical (d) qualitative Each statement in the key is called _______. (a) lead (b) catalogues (c) manuals (d) monographs The keys are based on contrasting characters generally in a pair called _______. (a) flora (b) couplet (c) both (a) and (b) (d) manuals

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only living organisms grow. (b) Plants grow only up to a certain age. (c) The growth in living organisms is from inside. (d) All of the above. Growth in living organisms occurs by (a) division of cells. (b) increase in biomass. (c) accumulation of materrial by external agency. (d) both (a) and (b). Which one of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference. (b) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals. (c) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens. (d) Herbarium is a store house that contains dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of growth? (i) Increase in mass (ii) Differentiation (iii) Increase in number of individuals (iv) Response to stimuli (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii) Which of the following statements regarding nomenclature is correct? (a) Generic name always begins with capital letter whereas specific name with small letter. (b) Scientific name should be printed in italics. (c) Scientific name when typed or handwritten should be underlined. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements are correct about herbarium? (a) It is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried and preserved on sheets. (b) Herbarium sheets contain information about date and place of collection, names, family, collector’s name, etc. (c) It serves as quick referral systems in taxonomical studies. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements regarding growth is incorrect? (a) In plants, growth by cell division is seen only upto a certain stage. (b) Growth exhibited by non-living objects is by accumulation of material on the surface. (c) A multicellular organism grows by cell division. (d) Growth in in vitro culture of unicellular organisms can be observed by counting the number of cells.

EBD_7209

Biology

The Living World 36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Metabolism ? (a) It is the sum total of all physical reactions taking place inside a living system. (b) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism. (c) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are not living but are living reactions. (d) All of the above Which one of the following statements is correct about biodiversity ? (a) It is the occurrence of varied type of organisms on earth. (b) Each different kind of plant, animal or organism represents a species. (c) The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7–1.8 million. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements are not correct ? (i) Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share. (ii) Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibit a few similar characters. (iii) Cat and dog are included in the same family Felidae. (iv) Binomial nomenclature was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Genus comprises a group of related species. (ii) Taxon represents a taxonomic group of individual organisms. (iii) Family comprises a group of related genera. (iv) Taxonomic category class includes related orders. (a) (i), (ii), and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct ? (i) Reproduction is the production of progeny possessing features dissimilar to their parents. (ii) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all multiply by budding. (iii) Many organisms like mules, sterile worker bees do not reproduce. (iv) Reproduction is not an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) All living organisms have ability to respond the environment stimuli which could be physical, chemical or biological. (ii) Plants respond to external factors like light, water, temperature, other organisms, pollutants, etc.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

(iii) Photoperiod affects the process of reproduction. (iv) Human being is the only organism who has self consciousness. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) Classification is the providing of standardize names to the organisms such that a particular organism known by the same all over the world. (ii) Taxonomy is the correct description of an organism and to recognition in its scientific name. (iii) The system of naming with two components (binomial nomenclature) is proposed by Carolus Linneaus. (iv) Zoological names are based on International Code for Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN). (a) Only (i) (b) Both (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following taxonomic categories is being described by the given statements (i-iii) ? (i) It is the basic unit of classification. (ii) It is defined as the group of individuals which resemble in their morphological and reproductive characters and interbreed among themselves and produce fertile offsprings. (iii) Human beings belong to the species sapiens which is grouped in the genus Homo. (a) Species (b) Genus (c) Order (d) Family Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct ? (i) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species of other genera. (ii) Three different genera such as Solanum, Datura and Petunia are placed in the family malvaceae. (iii) In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called phylum. (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following taxonomical aids is being described by the given statements (i-iv) ? (i) They generally established in educational institutes. (ii) They have collections of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and reference. (iii) Insects are preserved in boxes after collecting, killing and pinning. (iv) They often have collections of skeletons of animals too. (a) Herbarium (b) Museum (c) Zoological parks (d) Botanical gardens Which of the following statements regarding growth is incorrect? (a) In animals growth is seen up to a certain age. (b) Increase in body mass is considered as growth. (c) Growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their life span in animals. (d) Increase in mass and number of individuals is the characteristics feature of animal growth.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

Select the correct statements (i-v) regarding taxonomic categories. (i) Each step or rank in hierarchy is called taxonomic category. (ii) Species is a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities capable of breeding among themselves. (iii) Taxonomic studies of all unknown organisms have led to the development of common categories like kingdom, phylum or division, class, order, family, genus and species. (iv) Lower the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at the same level. (a) (i) & (ii) only (b) (ii) & (iv) only (c) (i), (ii) & (iii) only (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. (b) Organisms placed in the same genus are least closely related. (c) Moving from species to kingdom, more different species are included in each higher category. (d) Species that are in the same genus share very specific characteristics. Study the following statements and select the correct description of botanical garden. (i) Plant species are grown for identification purposes. (ii) Labeling of each plant consists of its botanical name/ scientific name and its family. (iii) Specimens are preserved in the jars and containers. (iv) It is a type of store house which contains dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens on sheet. (v) Plant specimen contains a labeling of information about date and place of collection. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) All the five statements. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the various steps of Herbarium formation? (1) Drying (2) Poisoning (3) Collection (4) Labelling (5) Mounting (6) Deposition \(7) Stitching (a) 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6 (b) 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1 (c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 6, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 7, 5, 6, 4 Which of the following pair is correctly matched. (i) Fungi – Regeneration (ii) Mossess – Fragmentation (iii) Planaria – Budding (a) (i) and (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iii) (c) only (ii) (d) only (iii)

52.

53.

Dicotyledons like mango, brinjal and monocotyledons like Wheat and Rice are placed under a taxonomic category known as (a) Phylum – Angiospermae (b) Division – Angiospermae (c) Class – Angiospermae (d) Sereis – Polypetalae Amongst the given taxonomic aids, how many are associated with preservation of specimens? Monograph, Flora, Key, Museums, Botanical Gardens, Catalogue, Herbarium, Manual (a) One (b) Three (c) Two (d) Four

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 54. Assertion : Taxon and category are different things. Reason : Category shows hierarchical classification. 55. Assertion : The species is reproductively isolated natural population. Reason : Prokaryotes cannot be kept under different species on the basis of reproductive isolation. 56. Assertion: Information given on the label of herbarium sheets does not include family. Reason: Families are characterized on the basis of reproductive features of plant species only. 57. Assertion: Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area. Reason : Flora helps in correct identification. 58. Assertion : Panthera is a polytypic genera. Reason : Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris and pardus. 59. Assertion : Biological concept of species is based on reproductive isolation. Reason : Most accepted species concept was given by Linnaeus. 60. Assertion : Botanical Gardens are ex-situ conservation strategy of plants. Reason : National botanical Garden is situated at Howrah. 61. Assertion : Scientific names for plants have been standardized through ICBN. Reason : Naming system which used three word format was given by Linnaeus. 62. Assertion : Two plants A and B are treated as two taxonomic species. Reason : Both A and B are different in correlated characters.

EBD_7209

Biology

The Living World

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 63.

Match the common name given in column I with their taxonomic category order given in column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Common name) (Taxonomic category–Order) A. Wheat

B. Mango

II. Diptera

C. Housefly

III. Sapindales

D. Man

IV. Poales

67.

Primata

(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I 64. Match the common name given in column I with their taxonomic category family given in column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Common Name) (Taxonomic category– Family) A. Man I. Poaceae B. Datura II. Anacardiaceae C. Mango III. Solanaceae D. Wheat IV. Hominidae (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV 65. Match column-I (Biological name) with column-II (Class) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Biological name) (Class) A. Homo sapiens I. Dicotyledonae B. Musca domestica II. Mammalia C. Mangifera indica III. Monocotyledonae D. Triticum aestivum IV. Insects (a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III 66. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II A. National Botanical I. Carolus Linneaus Research Institute B. Indian Botanical II. Taxon Garden C. Binomial III. Howrah (India) Nomenclature D. A unit of IV. Lucknow classification

68.

69.

70.

71.

(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Family I. tuberosum B. Kingdom II. Polymoniales C. Order III. Solanum D. Species IV. Plantae E. Genus V. Solanaceae (a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – I (b) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III (c) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – III (d) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – IV Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category ? (a) Tiger – Tigris, the species (b) Cuttle fish – Mollusca, a class (c) Humans – Primata, the family (d) Housefly – Musca, an order Which of the following taxonomic category of housefly is incorrectly matched? (a) Genus – Musca (b) Family – Muscidae (c) Order – Primata (d) Class – Insecta Which of the following organisms is not correctly matched with its particular ? (a) Human beings – Sapiens, species (b) Lion – Panthera, genus (c) Cats – Felidae, genus (d) Datura – Solanaceae, family In the given columns, column I contains the terms and column II contains its description. Select the correct match from the option given below. Column I

Column II

A. Growth

I. Production of offspring.

B. Reproduction II. Composed of one or more cells. C. Metabolism

III. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals. IV. Sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in body.

D. Cellular organization

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A I III III II

B II I I IV

C III II IV III

D IV IV II I

72.

Match the taxonomic categories given in column I with their feature given in column II. Column I

A . Taxon

Column II I. Bas ic u nit o f clas s ificatio n

B. Sp ecies

II. A taxo no mic grou p of an y rank

C. Ph ylu m

III. Div is io n is th e s ame categ ory in cas e o f p lants IV. Id en tified b as ed on a n umber o f s imilar characters V. Gro up o f related s pecies hav in g mo re ch aracter in co mmon with o thers s pecies

D. Genu s E. Order

73.

Column I

B. Botan ical garden C. M u s eum D. Zoo lo gical Park E. Key

A II I IV IV

B III IV I I

C IV II III II

D I III IV III

DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS 75.

Consider following diagram and fill the following blank spaces/boxes. C

A B C D E (a) V II IV III I (b) III I IV II V (c) II I III V IV (d) III II IV I V Select the correct taxonomic aids given in column I with their feature given in columns II.

A . Herbariu m

Phylum/Division

Class

Column II

I. In clud es th os e s pecimens which can b e eas ily clas s ified on th eir o bs ervable characters . II. Pres erved s p ecimen s on s h eets b ecome a s to re h ou s e for fu ture u s e. III. Gen erally s et up in ed ucatio nal in s titu tes . IV. In clud es tho s e animals which are id entified bas ed o n their ag greg ates o f characters . V. A ll animals p ro vid ed s imilar con ditio ns to th eir natural hab itat. VI. In clud es an imals o f related o rders . VII. In clud es collectio n o f liv in g p lants fo r reference. VIII. It id entifies an imals an d p lants o n th e bas is o f their s imilarities an d d is s imilarities .

74.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A B C D (a) I II VIII V (b) III I IV II (c) II VII III V (d) II III VII I Select the correct Match. Column I

A . Ex-s itu co ns ervation B. Qu ick referral s ys tem

Family

Genus

(a) (b) (c) (d)

CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 76.

E III V VIII IV Column II I. Central n ation al Herbarium II. M u s eum

C. Pres erved plants an d III. Flo ra A nimals D. A cco un t of h abitat IV. Roy al Botanical an d d is tribu tio n o f Gard en, Kew. p lant in an area.

A-Strain, B-Order, C-Sub kingdom A-species, B-order, C-kingdom A-subspecies, B-Tribe, C-Domain A-species, B-Cohort, C-Subdivision

77.

Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories. (a) Species ® Genus ® Order ® Class ® Family ® Phylum/Division ® Kingdom (b) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Class ® Phylum/ Division ® Order ® Kingdom (c) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Order ® Class ® Phylum/Division ® Kingdom (d) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Order ® Class ® Phylum/Division ® Kingdom Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they (a) have same number of chromosomes. (b) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds. (c) have more than 90 per cent similar genes. (d) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites.

EBD_7209

Biology

The Living World 78.

‘Taxa’ differs from ‘taxon’ due to being (a) a higher taxonomic category than taxon. (b) lower taxonomic category than taxon. (c) the plural of taxon. (d) the singular of taxon. 79. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to (a) step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals. (b) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals. (c) a list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group. (d) classification of a species based on fossil record. 80. Two animals which are the members of the same order must also be the members of the same __________. (a) class (b) family (c) genus (d) species 81. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that (a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation. (b) one can observe tropical plants there. (c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm. (d) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife. 82. The disadvantage of using common names for species is that (a) the names may change. (b) one name does not apply universally. (c) one species may have several common names and one common name may be applied to two species. (d) all of the above 83. The most important feature of all living systems is to (a) utilize oxygen to generate energy. (b) replicate the genetic information. (c) produce gametes. (d) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities. 84. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their__________. (a) genus (b) family (c) order (d) division 85. Which one of the following is the first step in taxonomy ? (a) Naming (b) Description (c) Identification (d) Classification 86. Which of the following is the only taxonomic categories that has a real existence? (a) Phylum (b) Species (c) Genus (d) Kingdom 87. In angiosperm, characters of flowers are used in classification because (a) flowers are attractive. (b) flowers are large. (c) character of flowers are conserved. (d) none of the above. 88. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics (a) will decrease. (b) will increase. (c) remain same. (d) may increase or decrease.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

Genus represents (a) an individual plant or animal. (b) a collection of plants or animals. (c) group of closely related species of plants or animals. (d) none of the above. The taxonomic unit ‘phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchial level in classification of plants ? (a) Class (b) Order (c) Division (d) Family Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus? (a) Species (b) Division (c) Class (d) Family If an organism is in the same class but not in the same family then it may belong to same (a) genus (b) species (c) variety (d) order Refer the botanical name of wheat "Triticum aestivum" and identify the statement which correctly describes it. (a) The second word belongs to genus and starts with a small letter. (b) Both the words "Triticum aestivum" denote the specific epithet. (c) The first word Triticum denotes the genus which starts with a capital letter. (d) The first word Triticum denotes the specific epithet while the second word denotes the genus. Which of the following characters given below displays the description of lowest taxonomic category of organisms in the plant and animal kingdom? (a) It includes one or more than one order. (b) It is a group containing one or more families. (c) It is a group of related organisms that resemble one another. (d) It is a group of organisms that are closely related and share similar characteristics. Which of the following shows the correct example of taxonomic category - Genus? (a) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to Solanum. (b) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in Mammalia. (c) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are placed in Solanacea. (d) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera leo. "X" being a higher category is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few "Y" characters. The "Z" characters are less in a number as compared to different genera included in a family. Identify "X", "Y", and "Z". (a) X - Order; Y - Similar; Z - Similar (b) X - Genus; Y - Similar; Z - Different (c) X - Species; Y - Different; Z - Similar (d) X - Class; Y - Different; Z - Different Couplet represents the choice made between two opposite options which results in (a) rejection of both the option. (b) acceptance of both the option. (c) either acceptance or rejection of both the option. (d) acceptance of only one and rejection of the other.

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Which of the following characteristic(s) is/are used by Whittaker for the classification of organisms ? (a) Mode of nutrition (b) Thallus organisation (c) Phylogenetic relationships (d) All of the above Organisms of which of the following kingdom do not have nuclear membrane ? (a) Protista (b) Fungi (c) Monera (d) Plantae Protists are (a) single-celled eukaryotes. (b) multicellular eukaryotes. (c) single-celled prokaryotes. (d) single-celled akaryote. Which of the following pigment is present in cyanobacteria? (a) Chlorophyll ‘a’ (b) Chlorophyll ‘b’ (c) Chlorophyll ‘c’ (d) Chlorophyll ‘d’ Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can live without oxygen? (a) Mycoplasma (b) Mycorrhiza (c) Euglena (d) Trypanosoma Which of the following processes are involved in the reproduction of protists ? (a) Binary fission and budding (b) Cell fusion and zygote formation (c) Spore formation and cyst formation (d) All of the above Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes? (a) Diatoms and Euglena (b) Euglena and Trypanosoma (c) Diatoms and Desmids (d) Gonyaulax and Desmids

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Chapter

Biological Classification

Which of the following is an example of amoeboid protozoans ? (a) Trypanosoma (b) Paramecium (c) Gonyaulax (d) Entamoeba Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the mustard plant ? (a) Albugo (b) Puccinia (c) Yeast (d) Ustilago Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work ? (a) Agaricus (b) Alternaria (c) Neurospora (d) Mucor Which of the following is/are example(s) of deuteromycetes? (a) Alternaria (b) Colletotrichum (c) Trichoderma (d) All of these Which group of fungi is commonly known as imperfect fungi ? (a) Phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of (a) insectivorous plants (b) parasitic plants (c) N2 – rich plants (d) aquatic plants The subunit of capsid is called (a) core (b) nucleotide (c) amino acid (d) capsomere Which of the following is not a viral disease ? (a) AIDS and mumps (b) Small pox and herpes (c) Influenza (d) Cholera The symbiotic association between fungi and algae is called (a) lichen (b) mycorrhiza (c) rhizome (d) endomycorrhiza The genetic material of virus includes (a) only RNA. (b) only DNA. (c) RNA and DNA both (d) RNA or DNA , i.e., one nucleic acid in a virus.

Biological Classification 18.

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Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of (a) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. (b) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes. (c) ascomycetes and phycomycetes. (d) phycomycetes and zygomycetes. Clamp connection is found in (a) basidiomycetes (b) ascomycetes (c) saccharomycetes (d) haplomycetes Plasmogamy is the fusion of (a) two haploid cells including their nuclei. (b) two haploid cells without nuclear fusion. (c) sperm and egg. (d) sperm and two polar nuclei. Which scientist classified plants into trees, shrubs and herbs and animals into two groups based on absence or presence red blood cells? (a) Aristotle (b) R. H. Whittaker (c) D. J. Ivanowsky (d) W. M. Stanley Fungi are filamentous with the exception of "X" which is unicellular. Identify X. (a) Yeast (b) Albugo (c) Mucor (d) Lichen The bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances and use the released energy for the synthesis of food are called _______________. (a) Archaebacteria (b) Heterotrophic bacteria (c) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria (d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 24.

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Which of the following statements is not correct for viruses? (a) Viruses are obligate parasites. (b) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living cells. (c) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters. (d) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA (never both DNA and RNA). Which of the following statements is correct for archaea? (a) Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all respects. (b) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes. (c) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. (d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes. Which of the following statements is not correct for methanogens? (a) They are archaebacteria. (b) They live in marshy areas.

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(c) Methane is their preferred carbon source. (d) They are present in guts of several ruminant animals (cow, buffaloes) and produce biogas (CH4) from the dung of these animals. Which of the following statements is correct for both blue-green algae and bacteria ? (a) Both show anaerobic respiration. (b) Both have chlorophyll pigment. (c) Both are devoid of true nucleus. (d) None of the above Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule. (b) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses. (c) The bacteriophage has double-stranded DNA. (d) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses. Which of the following statement is/ are correct for bacteria? (a) They are the members of the kingdom monera. (b) They live in extreme habitats such as hot springs, deserts, snow and deep oceans. (c) They show the most extensive metabolic diversity. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is a characteristic feature of chrysophytes? (a) They are parasitic forms which cause diseases in animals. (b) They have a protein rich layer called pellicle. (c) They have indestructible cell wall layer deposited with silica. (d) They are commonly called dinoflagellates. Which of the following statements is correct for dinoflagellates flagella ? (a) A single flagellum lies in the transverse groove between the cell plates. (b) A single flagellum lies in the longitudinal groove between the cell plates. (c) Two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall plates. (d) Flagella are absent. Choose the correct statements (i – v) regarding mycoplasma (i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall. (ii) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism known. (iii) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2. (iv) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants. (v) A sort of sexual reproduction occurs in bacterium by adopting a primitive DNA transfer from one bacterium to the other. (a) Only (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (v) (c) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v) (d) All of the above

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Read the given statements and answer the question. (i) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi. (ii) In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and septate. (iii) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously in chain. (iv) Sexual spores are ascospores produced endogenously in chain. (v) Fruiting body is called ascocarp. Identify the correct class of fungi which have all the above given characteristics. (a) Phycomycetes (b) Sac fungi (c) Club fungi (d) Fungi imperfecti T. O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and have the following characteristics. (i) It causes potato spindle tuber disease. (ii) It has free RNA. (iii) Molecular weight of RNA is low. Identify the infections agent. (a) Viruses (b) Viroids (c) Virion (d) Mycoplasma Consider the following statements with respect to characteristic features of the kingdom. (i) In animalia, the mode of nutrition is autotrophic. (ii) In monera, the nuclear membrane is present. (iii) In protista, the cell type is prokaryotic. (iv) In plantae, the cell wall is present. Of the above statements, which one is correct ? (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (iii) only (d) (iv) only Which of the following are the characters of dinoflagellates? (i) They are planktonic golden yellow algae with soap box like structure. (ii) They are marine red biflagellated protista. (iii) They appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red in colour. (iv) They are biflagellated organisms with pellicle. (v) They are saprophytic (or) parasitic unicellular forms. (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v) The given characters are seen in which of the following group? (i) Unicellular, colonial, filamentous, marine or terrestrial forms. (ii) The colonies are surrounded by a gelatinous sheath. (iii) Some can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called heterocysts. (iv) They often form blooms in water bodies.

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(a) Archaebacteria (b) Cyanobacteria (c) Chrysophytes (d) Dinoflagellates Which of the following group of kingdom protista is being described in the statements given below ? (i) This group includes diatoms and golden algae. (ii) They are microscopic and float passively in water currents (plankton). (iii) Most of them are photosynthetic. (iv) They have deposits in their habitat; this accumulation over billion of years is referred to as ‘diatomaceous earth’. (a) Dinoflagellates (b) Chrysophytes (c) Euglenoids (d) Slime moulds The given statements are some characters of a particular group of Kingdom protista. (i) Most of them are fresh water organisms found in standing water. (ii) They have a protein rich layer (called pellicle) which makes their body flexible. (iii) They have two flagella, a short and a long one. (iv) Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, but in the absence of sunlight they behave like heterotrophs by predating on other smaller organisms. Identify the correct group on the basis of these characters. (a) Protozoans (b) Chrysophytes (c) Slime moulds (d) Euglenoids Which of the following class of fungi is being described by the given statements ? (i) They are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in moist and damp places. (ii) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic. (iii) Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile). (iv) Some common examples are Mucor, Rhizopus and Albugo. (a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ascomycetes ? (i) Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and genetic work is a member of this class. (ii) They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or rarely unicellular, e.g., Penicillium. (iii) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous. (iv) Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora. (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these

EBD_7209

Biology

Biological Classification 42.

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Read the following statements and answer the question given below (i) They are saprophytic protists. (ii) Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation (called plasmodium) which may grow and spread over several feet. (iii) During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips. Which of the following class of protists is being described by the above statements ? (a) Euglenoids (b) Dinoflagellates (c) Slime moulds (d) Protozoans Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about class basidiomycetes ? (i) They are commonly known as imperfect fungi because only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known. (ii) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites, e.g., rusts and smuts. (iii) The mycelium is branched and septate. (iv) Some common members are Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) Some members are saprophytes or parasites while a large number of them are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling. (ii) They reproduce only by asexual spores known as conidia. (iii) Mycelium is septate and branched. (iv) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are examples of this class. Which of the following class of fungi is being described by the above statements ? (a) Phycomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Ascomycetes Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) Reproduction in fungi can take place by vegetative means – fragmentation, fission and budding. (ii) Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy. (iii) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or nonmotile gametes is called karyogamy. (iv) Meiosis in zygote results in diploid spores. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is incorrect? (a) It is also called blue green algae. (b) They are chemosynthetic autotrophs. (c) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies. (d) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine or terrestrial bacteria.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 52.

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Match the class of fungi given in column-I with their common name given in column-II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Class of fungi) (Common name) A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi (a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (b) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I Match the terms given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and choose the correct option Column-I Column-II (Terms) (Examples) A. Ascus I. Spirulina B. Basidium II. Penicillium C. Protista III. Agaricus D. Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena E. Animalia V. Sponges (a) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV (c) A – II, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – IV (d) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I, E – V

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Match the class of fungi given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct option Column-I Column-II (Class of fungi) (Examples) A. Ascomycetes I. Rhizopus B. Basidiomycetes II. Penicillium C. Deuteromycetes III. Ustilago D. Phycomycetes IV. Alternaria (a) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II (b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I Match column I (Kingdom) with column II (Class) and select the correct options Column-I Column-II (Kingdom) (Class) A. Plantae I. Archaebacteria B. Fungi II. Euglenoids C. Protista III. Phycomycetes D. Monera IV. Algae (a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I Match the scientists given in column I with their discovery given in column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Scientists) (Discovery) A. Ernst Mayr I. Discovered Viroids B. Whittaker II. Gave the name virus C. Pasteur III. Proposed five kingdom classification D. Diener IV. Darwin of the 20th century (a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I (b) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (d) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV Match column I (containing fungus name) with column II (common name) and choose the correct options. Column-I Column-II (Fungus name) (Commonly called) A. Puccinia I. Yeast B. Ustilago II. Mushroom C. Agaricus III. Smut fungus D. Saccharomyces IV. Rust fungus (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

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Match the type of protozoans given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Type of Protozoans) (Examples) A. Amoeboid protozoans I. Paramecium B. Ciliated protozoans II. Plasmodium C. Flagellated protozoans III. Amoeba D. Sporozoans IV. Trypanosoma (a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II (d) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II Match column-I (Characters/feature) with column-II (examples) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Characters/features) (Examples) A. Red dinoflagellates I. Rhizopus B. Unicellular fungi used to II. Gonyaulax make bread and beer C. Source of antibiotics III. Yeast D. Bread mould IV. Penicillium (a) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV (b) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV (c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (d) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Anabaena – Cyanobacteria (b) Amoeba – Protozoa (c) Gonyaulax – Dinoflagellates (d) Albugo – Chrysophytes Which of the following groups of protozoan is not correctly matched with its feature? (a) Amoeboid - Marine forms have silica shells on their surface. (b) Flagellated - Either free living or parasitic. (c) Ciliated - Actively moving organisms due to presence of cilia. (d) Sporozoans - Move and capture their prey with the help of false feet. Select the correct match from the given option. (a) Occurrence of dikaryotic stage - ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. (b) Saprophytes - They are autotrophic and absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates. (c) Vegetative mean of reproduction in fungi fragmentation, budding and sporangiophores. (d) Steps involved in asexual cycle of fungi - plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.

EBD_7209

Biology

Biological Classification

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 63.

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Refer to the given figures of bacteria cell and Nostoc and choose the option which shows correct label for the structures marked as A, B, C, D and E ?

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The figure given below shows the structure of a bacteriophage. Identify its parts labelled as A, B, C and D.

(a) A – Cell wall, B – Cell membrane, C – Heterocyst, D – DNA, E – Mucilagenous sheath (b) A – Cell wall, B – Cell membrane, C – DNA, D – Heterocyst, E – Mucilagenous sheath (c) A – Mucilagenous sheath, B – Cell membrane, C – DNA, D – Heterocyst, E – Cell wall (d) A – Cell membrane, B – Cell wall, C – DNA, D – Heterocyst, E – Mucilagenous sheath Choose the correct names of the different bacteria given below according to their shapes.

(a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio (b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio (c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio (d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli Identify the figures A, B and C given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus A – Euglena, B – Planaria, C – Agaricus A – Planaria, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Aspergillus

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A B C D (a) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar (b) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres (c) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres (d) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath The given figure shows the structure of filamentous blue green algae. Nostoc with a structure marked as "X". Select the option which shows the correct identification of "X" with its feature.

(a) Spores - Reproduction (b) Heterocysts - Nitrogen fixation (c) Pellicle - Recycling of nutrition (d) Mucilaginous sheath - Photosynthesis The given figure shows some structures labelled as A, B, C and D. Which structure has the protein coat that encloses the nucleic acid?

(a) A (c) C

(b) B (d) D

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 69.

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Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is (a) neither syngamy nor reduction division. (b) no distinct chromosomes. (c) no conjugation. (d) no exchange of genetic material. Yeast is not included in protozoans but are placed fungi because (a) it has no chlorophyll. (b) some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they give the appearance of pseudomycelium. (c) it has eukaryotic organization. (d) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material is starch. A virus can be considered a living organism because it (a) responds to touch stimulus (b) respires (c) reproduces (inside the host) (d) can cause disease Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they (a) show association between algae and fungi. (b) grow faster than others. (c) are sensitive to SO2. (d) flourish in SO2 rich environment. When a moist bread is kept exposed in air, it becomes mouldy and black because (a) spores are present in the water. (b) spores are present in the bread. (c) spores are present in the air. (d) the bread decomposes. In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA indicating that (a) their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA before replication. (b) they cannot replicate. (c) there is no hereditary information. (d) RNA can transfer heredity material. Ustilago causes plant diseases (called smuts) because (a) they parasitize on cereals. (b) they lack mycelium. (c) they develop sooty masses of spores. (d) their affected parts becomes completely black. A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from different genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but divide independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed. This fungus belongs to (a) phycomycetes (b) zygomycetes (c) deuteromycetes (d) basidiomycetes

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Which of the following organisms is\are correctly assigned its/their taxonomic group? (a) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium. (b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an alga and a protozoan. (c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus. (d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista. Bacteria are found to be primitive organisms because they (a) are small, microscopic which are not seen with naked eye. (b) cause serious diseases to human being, domestic animals and crop plants. (c) produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions. (d) possess incipient nucleus and show amitotic division. Food can be kept for a longer time in cold house than in normal conditions because (a) insect cannot enter. (b) bacterial multiplication stops. (c) bacterial multiplication is reduced. (d) there is plasmolysis at low temperature. Mycorrhizae are useful for plants because they (a) fix atmospheric nitrogen. (b) enhance absorption of nutrients from the soil. (c) kill insects and pathogen. (d) provide resistance against abiotic stresses. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are categorised as (a) cyanobacteria (b) archaebacteria (c) chemosynthetic autotrophs (d) heterotrophic bacteria A specimen of fungus is brought by a student for identification. Upon close examination, he discovered that its hyphae are completely septate and it has gills on the underside of the pileus. To which fungal group does it most likely belong ? (a) Basidiomycetes (b) Zygomycetes (c) Ascomycetes (d) Chytrids How many bacteria are produced in four hours if a bacterium divides once in half an hour ? (a) 8 (b) 64 (c) 16 (d) 256 Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of the following kinds of spores except (a) conidia (b) oospores (c) sporangiospores (d) zoospores

EBD_7209

Biology

Biological Classification 85.

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Assume that two normal hyphal cells of different fungal mating types unite. After a period of time, the cell between these cells will dissolve producing a (a) mycelium (b) fruiting body (c) zygote (d) dikaryotic cell, which is also heterokaryotic Protozons are not included in kingdom animalia because they are (a) mostly asymmetrical. (b) unicellular eukaryotes. (c) heterotrophic in nature. (d) multicellular prokaryotes. Bacteria and yeast are similar in all the following features except that (a) both are unicellular. (b) both are prokaryotes. (c) both are capable of causing fermentation. (d) both produce spores. Which of the following is the correct sequence of three steps in the sexual cycle of fungi? (a) Mitosis ® Meiosis ® Fertilization (b) Plasmogamy ® Karyogamy ® Meiosis (c) Mitosis ® Plasmogamy ® Karyogamy (d) Karyogamy ® Plasmogamy ® Meiosis An "X" reproduces in such a great numbers that the water may appear, producing a red tides and kills large marine animals like "Z". "X" belongs to "Y". Identify "X", "Y" and "Z". (a) X - Gonyaulax ; Y - Dinoflagellates; Z - Fishes (b) X - Paramecium ; Y - Protozoa ; Z Crocodiles (c) X - Trypanosoma ; Y - Protozoa ; Z - Frogs (d) X - Plasmodium ; Y - Euglenoids ; Z - Oysters

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Identify the basis of classification of fungi into phycomycetes, ascomycetes, basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes. i. Fruiting bodies ii. Nature of habitat iii. Morphology of mycelium iv. Mode of spore formation (a) i & ii only (b) ii & iii only (c) i, iii, & iv only (d) All of these Which class of fungi lacks sex organs but the process of plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes? (a) Sac fungi (b) Bracket fungi (c) Imperfect fungi (d) Phycomycetes Refer to the statement and answer the question. "Once the sexual stage of members of deuteromycetes were discovered, they were often moved to X and Y." Identify X and Y. (a) X - Monera ; Y - Protista (b) X - Basidiomycetes ; Y - Phycomycetes (c) X - Ascomycetes ; Y - Basidiomycetes (d) X - Phycomycetes ; Y - Archaebacteria A scientist "X" demonstrated that extract of infected plants of "Y" could cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as "Contagium vivum fluidum". Identify X and Y. X Y (a) W. M. Stanley Potato (b) M. W. Beijerinek Tobacco (c) D. J. Ivanowsky Cauliflower (d) Pasteur Tomato

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The natural system of classification for flowering plants was given by (a) Carolus Linnaeus (b) Bentham and Hooker (c) Engler and Prantl (d) R. H. Whittaker Phylogenetic classification system is based on the (a) morphological characters of various organisms. (b) anatomical characters of various organisms. (c) physiological characters of various organisms. (d) evolutionary relationships between the various organisms. Cytological information like chromosome number, structure, behaviour are related with (a) numerical taxonomy (b) cytotaxonomy (c) chemotaxonomy (d) all of these Flagellate isogametes and anisogametes are found in (a) Spirogyra (b) Fucus (c) Volvox (d) Chlamydomonas Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as _______. (a) isogamous (b) oogamous (c) anisogamous (d) agamous Algin, carrageen and proteins are obtained from (a) red algae, brown algae, green algae respectively. (b) brown algae, red algae, green algae respectively. (c) red algae, green algae, brown algae respectively. (d) green algae, brown algae, red algae respectively. Which of the following class of algae is rarely found in fresh water ? (a) Chlorophyceae (b) Phaeophyceae (c) Rhodophyceae (d) Both (a) and (b) Which of the following class of algae is mostly found in salt water ? (a) Phaeophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae (c) Chlorophyceae (d) Both (a) and (b)

Chapter

Plant Kingdom

What is the number and position of insertions of flagella in rhodopyceae class of algae ? (a) 2 - 8, equal, apical (b) 2, unequal, lateral (c) 2 - 6, equal, lateral (d) Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae

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In class phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a A and has a stalk, the B and leaf like photosynthetic organ-the C . (a) A – holdfast, B – stipe, C – frond (b) A – stipe, B – holdfast, C – frond (c) A – frond, B – stipe, C – holdfast (d) A – stipe, B – frond, C – holdfast

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Which of the following groups of plants play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks/soil ? (a) Algae

(b) Bryophytes

(d) Gymnosperms

_______ represent the reproductive organs amongst gymnosperms. (a) Prothallus

(b) Capsules

(d) Cones

In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called ______ and ______ respectively. (a) microsporangia; macrosporangia (b) male strobili; female strobili (c) antheridia; archegonia (d) androecium; gynoecium

14.

15.

Laminaria (Kelp) and Fucus (Rock weed) are examples of (a) green algae

(b) brown algae

(d) golden brown algae

Pyrenoids in green algal cells are related to (a) starch formation

(b) protein storage

(d) enzyme secretion

Plant Kingdom 16.

17.

18.

19.

The heterosporous pteridophyte belonging to the class lycopsida is (a) Selaginella (b) Psilotum (c) Equisetum (d) Pteris Which of the following pteridophytes belong to class pteropsida? (a) Equisetum and Psilotum (b) Lycopodium and Adiantum (c) Selaginella and Pteris (d) Pteris and Adiantum Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having (a) seeds (b) motile sperms (c) cambium (d) vessels Protonema and leafy stage are the predominant stage of the life cycle of (a) moss (b) dicots (c) liverwort (d) gymnosperm

23.

24.

25.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 20.

21.

22.

Which one of the following is a correct statement? (a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage. (b) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living. (c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes. (d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes. Why rhodophyta exhibit a red colour ? (a) Since most rhodophyta grow at great depths, the chlorophyll can only absorb light in the red area of the spectrum. (b) The wavelengths of light that are absorbed by chlorophyll are passed to phycoerythrin (a red pigment). (c) Red pigment of rhodophyta absorbs all the light waves. (d) The light reaching the greatest depth in water is in the blue-green region of the spectrum, is absorbed by phycoerythrin. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) Double fertilization is unique to gymnosperms and monocotyledons. (b) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest tree species. (c) Phaeophyceae members possess chlorophyll a and c, carotenoids and xanthophylls. (d) Moss is a gametophyte which consists of two stages namely, protonemal stage and leafy stage.

26.

27.

Which one of the following is the major difference between mosses and ferns ? (a) Ferns lack alternation of generation while mosses show the same. (b) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are obligate aerobes. (c) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels while those of mosses lack it. (d) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared to the sporophytes of mosses. What is the similarity between gymnosperms and angiosperms? (a) Phloem of both have companian cells. (b) Endosperm is formed before fertilization in both. (c) Origin of ovule and seed is similar in both. (d) Both have leaves, stem and roots. Which one of the following terms is correctly matched with their definition in Pinus ? (a) Monoecious – Male (microsporangiate) and female (megasporangiate) cones are produced on same plant. (b) Monoecious – Male and female sporophylls borne on same strobilus. (c) Dioecious – Male and female cones are produced on different plants. (d) Monoecious – Micro and megasporocarp develop on same plant. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about mosses ? (a) The predominant stage of its life cycle is the gametophyte which consists of two stages – protonema and leafy stages. (b) Leafy stage are attached to the soil through multi-cellular and branched rhizoids. (c) Sex organs-antheridia and archegonia are produced at the apex of the leafy shoots. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (a) In angiosperms, each embryo sac has a three-celled egg apparatus – one egg cell and two synergids, three antipodal cells and two polar nuclei. (b) All seed – bearing plants i.e., gymnosperms and angiosperms follow dipontic life patterns of plants. (c) In gymosperms, roots in some genera have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza (Pinus) while in some others (Cycas) small specialized roots called coralloid are associated with N 2 – fixing cyanobacteria. (d) All of the above

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

Which one of the following statements concerning the algae is incorrect ? (a) Most algae are photosynthetic. (b) Algae can be classified according to their pigments. (c) All algae are filamentous. (d) Spirogyra does not produce zoospores. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte. (ii) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent. (iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum. (iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous. (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct option. (i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence. (ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium. (iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous. Of these statements (a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect (b) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) is incorrect (c) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect but (i) is correct (d) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) is incorrect Which of the following statements with respect to algae are correct. (i) Fusion between one large, non-motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete is termed as oogamous. (ii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is termed as oogamous. (iii) Fusion of two gametes similar in size is called anisogamous. (iv) In chlorophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll a and b , and the food is stored as starch. (v) In rhodophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll a and d , and the food is stored as mannitol. (a) (i) and (v) (b) (iii) and (v) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iv) Which of the following statements with respect to gymnosperms and angiosperms is/are correct? (i) The process of double fertilization is present in gymnosperms. (ii) Angiosperms range in size from microscopic Wolffia to tall trees of Sequoia. (iii) In gymnosperms, the seeds are not covered. (iv) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent free living existence.

33.

34.

35.

36.

Of the above statements (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (i) In rhodophyceae, food is stored in the form of mannitol and laminarin. (ii) The ovules of gymnosperms are not enclosed by ovary wall. (iii) Salvinia is heterosporous. (iv) In the diplontic life-cycle, the free living gametophyte represents the dominant phase. (a) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) and (iv) are incorrect. (b) (ii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (iii) are incorrect. (c) (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (ii) are incorrect. (d) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are incorrect. Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different groups of algae and choose the correct option (i) In chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and d. (ii) In phaeophyceae, laminarian is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b. (iii) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a, d and phycoerythrin. (a) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect (b) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is incorrect (c) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is incorrect (d) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are incorrect Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (i) Green algae are the members of chlorophyceae. (ii) Brown algae are found primarily in marine habitates (iii) Some red algae are found in fresh water, mostly occur in salt water, some are found in brackish water. (iv) The food in red algae is stored as floridean starch. (v) Red alga may occur in both well-lighted regions close to water-surface and also at great depths in oceans where light penetration is little. (a) (i) and (v) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (c) All of the above (d) None of the above Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about gemmae ? (i) These are specialised structures by which asexual reproduction take place in liverworts. (ii) They are green, multicellular and asexual buds. (iii) They develop in small receptacles called gemma cups. (iv) They detach from parent body and germinate to form new individuals.

EBD_7209

Biology

Plant Kingdom

37.

38.

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following branch of science is being described by the given statements ? (i) It can easily done by using computers based on all observable characters. (ii) Numbers and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed. (iii) Each character is given equal weightage and at the same time hundred of characters can be considered. (a) Cytotaxonomy (b) Numerical taxonomy (c) Chemotaxonomy (d) b-taxonomy Which of the following statements about algae is/are correct? (i)

Algae are chlorophyll – bearing simple, thalloid, heterotrophic and aquatic (both fresh water and marine) organisms.

41.

39.

(d) All of these

One or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located in the chloroplasts are present in the members of this class.

42.

43.

(ii) They have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose. (iii) Asexual reproduction is by flagellated zoospores produced in zoosporangia. (iv) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra and Chara are commonly found members of this class.

40.

(a) Chlorophyceae

(b) Rhodophyceae

(d) None of these

Refer to the following statement(s) and identify the group of plant which is being described by the given statements? (i)

They include various mosses and liverworts that are found commonly growing in moist shaded areas in the hills.

(ii) They lack true roots, stem or leaves. (iii) The main plant body is haploid. (iv) They produce a multicellular body sporophyte which is not free living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.

Which of the following group of plant is being described by the given statements ? The plant body is thalloid.

(iv) They grow usually in moist and shady habitats.

The following statements are associated with one class of algae. Identify the class of algae. (i)

(d) Pteridophytes

(iii) The sporophyte is differentiated into a foot, seta and capsule.

(iv) A few of the massive forms of algae such as kelps, form massive plant bodies. (c) Only (iv)

(ii) Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation of thalli, or by the formation of specialized structures called gemmae.

(iii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is termed as oogamous.

(b) Both (i) and (iii)

(b) Fungi

(i)

(ii) Algae reproduce by vegetative means only.

(a) Only (i)

(a) Algae

44.

(a) Liverworts

(b) Moss

(d) Gymnosperm

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about pteridophytes ? (i) The main plant body is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true roots and leaves. (ii) The leaves are small (microphylls) as in ferns or large (macrophylls) as in Selaginella. (iii) Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce two kinds of spores–macro (large) and micro (small) spores, are known as heterospores. (iv) Common examples are Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum. (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following group of plant is being described by the given statements ? (i) They are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed before and after fertilization. (ii) The giant red wood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species of the group. (iii) The roots are generally tap roots. (iv) They are heterosporous and they produce haploid microspores and megaspores. (a) Algae (b) Bryophytes (c) Gymnosperms (d) Pteridophytes Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about angiosperms ? (i) In angiosperms or flowering plants, the pollen grains and ovules are developed in specialised structure called flowers. (ii) They are divided into two classes : the dicotyledons and the monocotyledons. (iii) The male sex organ in a flower is the pistil or the carpel. (iv) The female sex organ is the stamen.

45.

46.

47.

(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the one-celled zygote. (ii) Meiosis in the zygote results in the formation of haploid spores. (iii) The dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants is free-living gametophyte. (iv) Many algae such as Volvox, Spirogyra and some species of Chlamydomonas represent this pattern. Which of the following pattern of life cycle of plant is described by the above statements ? (a) Haplontic (b) Diplontic (c) Haplo-diplontic (d) None of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) Agar, one of commercial products obtained from Laminaria and Sargassum are used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-creams and jellies. (ii) In phaeophyceae, major pigments are chl a, d and phycoerythrin. (iii) Pteridophytes classified into four classes : Psilopsida, Lycopsida, Sphenopsida and Pteropsida. (iv) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds, which develop in small receptacles called gemma cups located on the thalli. (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iv) (c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch. (b) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, oogamous and anisogamous in green and brown algae. (c) Some of the members of algae also occur in association with fungi (lichen) and animals (eg, on sloth bear). (d) The leaves in pteridophytes are well adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

Reason: Phaeophyceae possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls. Assertion: Mosses are evolved from algae. Reason: Protonema of mosses is similar to some green algae. Assertion: Red algae contributes in producing coral reefs. Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls. Assertion: Coconut tree is distributed in coastal areas over a large part of the world. Reason: Coconut fruit can float and get dispersed over thousands of kilometers before losing viability. Assertion: Red algae contributes in producing coral reefs. Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls. Assertion: The peristome is a fringe of teeth-like projections found at the mouth of the capsule. Reason: It may be of two types nematodontous and orthodontus.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 55.

Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (Group of (Examples) Plant Kindgdom) A. Algae I. Solanum tuberosum B. Fungi II. Equisetum C. Angiosperm III. Cycas D. Pteridophyte IV. Chlamydomonas E. Gymnosperm V. Rhizopus (a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III (b) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III (d) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II 56. Match the classes of pteridophytes given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct option Column -I Column-II (Classes of pteridophytes) (Examples) A. Psilopsida I. Selaginella B. Lycopsida II. Psilotum C. Sphenopsida III. Dryopteris D. Pteropsida IV. Equisetum (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III

EBD_7209

Biology

Plant Kingdom 57.

58.

59.

Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Phaeophyceae I. Have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal B. Rhodophyceae II. first terrestrial plant with vascular tissue-phloem and xylem C. Mosses III. Asexual reproduction by biflagellate zoosposes D. Pteridophytes IV. Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria (a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II Match the column I with column II and choose the option which shows its correct combination. Column-I Column-II (Pattern of (Examples) life cycle in plant) A. Haplontic I. Bryophytes, life cycle Pteridophytes, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, Kelps B. Diplontic II. Seed bearing plants life cycle (Gymnosperm and Angiosperm), Fucus C. Haplo-diplontic III. Many algae (Volvox, life cycle Spirogyra) and some species of Chlamydomonas (a) A – III; B – II; C – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III (c) A – II; B – I; C – III (d) A – III; B – I; C – II Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (System of (Characteristics) classification) A. Artificial system I. Based on few of classification morphological characters B. Natural system II. Based on evolutionary of classification relationships between the various organisms C. Phylogenetic III. Based on natural affinities system of among the organisms and classification consider external as well as internal features. (a) A – II; B – I; C – III (b) A – I; B – III; C – II (c) A – III; B – II; C – I (d) A – I; B – II; C – III

60.

61.

62.

63.

Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Smallest flowing plant I. Eucalyptus B. Male sex organ in II. Wolffia flowering plant C. Female sex organ III. Stamen in flowering plant D. Tallest tree IV. Pistil (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Amphibian of the I. Sphagnum plant kingdom B. Specialized structures II. Angiosperms in liverworts for asexual reproduction C. Monocotyledons and III. Bryophytes dicotyledons D. A plant which has IV. Gemmae capacity to holding water (a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ? (a) Chlorophyceae – Major pigments are chl a and b. (b) Phaeophyceae – Cell wall is made up of cellulose and algin. (c) Rhodophyceae – Stored food is mannitol. (d) Chlorophyceae – Cell wall is made up of cellulose. Select the correct match of the feature present in column I with its respective terms given in column II. Column-I Column-II (features) (term) A. Presence of tap roots (I) Bryophyte and coralloid roots B. The synergids and (II) Pteridophytes antipodal cells degenerates after fertilization C. The food is stored as (III) Red algae floridean starch which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure

Presence of sporophyte (IV) Angiosperms which is not free living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophytes and derives nourishment from it

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Members of this group (V) Gymnosperms are used for medicinal purposes, as soil binders and frequently grown as ornamentals A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II ; E – IV A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 64.

65.

The given figures (A, B, C, D) represent the members algae. Identify the correct option for the given diagrams.

S. No.

(a)

Porphyra

Fucus

Dictyota

Polysiphonia

(b)

Polysiphonia

Porphyra

Dictyota

Fucus

(c)

Fucus

Dictyota

Porphyra

Polysiphonia

(d)

Porphyra

Polysiphonia

Fucus

Dictyota

Refer to the given figure (A, B, C and D) and answer the question. Which of the following figures are the members of green alga?

(a) A, B and D

(b) A, B and C

(c)

B, C and D

(d)

C, D and A

EBD_7209

Biology

Plant Kingdom 66.

The given figures represent the examples of bryophytes. In them few structures/parts are marked as A, B, C and D.

Identify the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B, C and D.

67.

S . No.

(a)

Gemma cup

A rch eg on iop ho re

Sp oro p hy te

S ph ag nu m

(b)

A rch ego nio ph ore

Gemma cu p

Gametop hy te

S ph ag nu m

(c)

A rcheg on ia

A ntheridia

Gemma cup

S ph ag nu m

(d)

A n th erid ia

A rch ego nia

Gemma cup

S ph ag nu m

Which one of the following options correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns? Sporophyte Zygote Sporophyte (2n) (2n) (2n) Meiosis Zygote (2n) Syngamy Zygote (2n)

B Gametogenesis

Spores (n)

Gametogenesis

Syngamy

Meiosis

C Spores (n)

Gametogenesis

Syngamy Meiosis

68.

Gametophyte (n)

(n) (a) A - Diplontic, B - Haplodiplontic, C - Haplontic (b) A - Haplodiplontic,B - Haplontic, C - Diplontic (c) A - Haplontic, B - Diplontic, C - Haplodiplontic (d) A - Diplontic, B - Haplontic, C - Haplodiplontic Identify the plants (A, B, C and D) and choose their correct names from the options given below.

A C

69.

S . No.

(a)

Eq uisetu m

Gin k g o

S ela ginella

Lyco po dium

(b)

S ela ginella

Equ isetu m

S alvin ia

Gink go

(c)

Fu na ria

Ad ia ntum

S alvin ia

Ricc ia

(d)

C ha ra

M a rcha ntia

Fu cu s

Pin us

The given figure shows the life cycle of an angiosperm. Few plants are marked as A, B, C, D and E. Identify the correct labelling from the given options. B A Microspore mother cells Filament

Style

Microsporangium Ovary Flower

Microspores

Megaspore mother cell

Megasporangium (ovule) Sporophyte

GAMETOPHYTIC (n) GENERATION

SPOROPHYTIC (2n) GENERATION

Microspore (pollen grain) Embryo E Zygote

(a) (b) (c) (d)

C Gametes

A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Male gametophyte, D–Egg, E–Female gametophyte A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Female gametophyte, D–Egg, E–Male gametophyte A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Male gametophyte, D–Fertilized egg, E–Female gametophyte A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Embryo sac, D–Egg, E–Female gametophyte

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 70.

71.

Which of the following example belong to the same class of algae? (a) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia (b) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas (c) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix (d) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria A bryophyte differs from pteridophytes in having (a) archegonia. (b) lack of vascular tissue. (c) swimming antherozoids. (d) independent gametophytes.

72.

73.

Fern plant is a (a) haploid gametophyte (b) diploid gametophyte (c) diploid sporophyte (d) haploid sporophyte The unique feature of bryophytes compared to other plant groups is that (a) they produce spores. (b) they lack vascular tissues. (c) they lack roots. (d) their sporophyte is attached to the gametophyte.

EBD_7209

Biology

Plant Kingdom 74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

If there are 4 cells in an anther, what will be the number of pollen grains? (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 12 Bryophytes are different from fungi in having (a) land habit. (b) sterile jacket layers. (c) multiflagellate gametes. (d) gametophytic plant body. Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because (a) it reduces transpiration. (b) it serves as a disinfectant. (c) it is easily available. (d) it is hygroscopic. If the cells of root in wheat plant have 42 chromosomes, then the no. of chromosome in the cell of pollen grain is (a) 14 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 42 A research student collected certain alga and found that its cells contained both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll d as well as phycoerythrin. On the basis of his observation, the students conclude that the alga belongs to (a) rhodophyceae (b) bacillariophyceae (c) chlorophyceae (d) phaeophyceae Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms because of (a) absence of pollination. (b) absence of seed. (c) absence of fertilization. (d) absence of ovary. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo? (a) Independent sporophyte (b) Presence of archegonia (c) Well developed vascular tissues (d) Independent gametophyte In angiosperms, a mature male gametophyte is derived from a pollen mother cell by (a) three mitotic divisions. (b) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions. (c) two meiotic divisions. (d) a single meiotic division. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups then which of the following characters you should choose for the classification ? (a) Nature of habitat (b) Structural organization of thallus (c) Chemical composition of the cell wall (d) Types of pigments present in the cell.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

Protonema (a) is a stage of gametophytic generation. (b) is a creeping, green, branched and develops directly from a spore. (c) produces lateral bud which forms leafy plant body. (d) All of the above The spreading of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical region because (a) gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady places. (b) it requires water for fertilization. (c) due to absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue. (d) both (a) and (b) Classification of plants proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial because it was based on (a) only a few morphological characters. (b) evolutionary tendencies which are diverse. (c) anatomical characters which are adaptive in nature. (d) physiological traits alongwith morphological characters. Mosses are of great ecological importance because of (a) its contribution to prevent soil erosion. (b) its contribution in ecological succession. (c) its capability to remove CO from the atmosphere. (d) both (a) and (b) You are given an unknown plant to study in the laboratory. You find that it has chlorophyll, no xylem. Its multicellullar sex organs are enclosed in a layer of jacket cells. Its gametophyte stage is free living. The plant probably belongs to (a) chlorophyceae (b) bryophyte (c) pteridophyte (d) gymnosperm Mosses do not have ‘true leaves’ because their leaf-like structures lack (a) starch in their chloroplast. (b) vascular tissues. (c) chlorophyll. (d) cellulose in their cell walls. Place the following groups of plants in order, beginning with those that first appeared on the earth and progressing toward those that appeared most recently in time. (a) Gymnosperms, angiosperms, ferns, moss, algae (b) Algae, moss, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms (c) Moss, algae, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms (d) Algae, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms, moss Chemotaxonomy is connected with (a) classification of chemicals found in plants. (b) use of phytochemical data in systematic botany. (c) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets. (d) use of statistical methods in chemical yielding plants.

91.

92.

93.

In order to colonize land, plants needed to acquire which of the following characteristics? (a) A mechanism for moving water throughout the plant. (b) A mechanism to prevent desiccation of tissues. (c) An ability to screen ultraviolet radiation. (d) Both (b) and (c) Deep in the tropical rain forest, a botanist discovered an unusual plant with vascular tissues, stomata, a cuticle, flagellated sperm, cone-like reproductive structures bearing seeds, and an alternation-of-generations life cycle. He was very excited about this discovery because it would be rather unusual for a plant to have both (a) a cuticle and flagellated sperm. (b) vascular tissues and alternation of generations. (c) seeds and flagellated sperm. (d) alternation of generations and seeds. A universal feature of the life cycle of plants is (a) morphologically identical haploid and diploid stages. (b) genetically identical haploid and diploid stages. (c) alteration of generations between heteromorphic haploid gametophytes and diploid sporophytes. (d) none of the above

94.

95.

96.

Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their (a) power of adaptability in diverse habitat. (b) property of producing large number of seeds. (c) nature of self pollination. (d) domestication of man. A student was given a sample to observe under the microscope. He observed and found that the sample is the most common type of spore involved in asexual reproduction in algae. Identify the spore. (a) Zoospore (b) Endospore (c) Hypnospore (d) None of these Refer to the statement and answer the question. “They usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation and asexually by non - motile spores and sexually by non - motile gametes.” Identify the group of plants and its example. (a) Mosses, Funaria (b) Red algae, Polysiphonia (c) Brown algae, Laminaria (d) Pteridophytes, Selaginella

EBD_7209

Biology

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, the organism is called ___________. (a) radially symmetrical (b) bilaterally symmetrical (c) asymmetrical (d) metamerically segmented Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification? (a) Germinal layers. (b) Pathway of water transport. (c) Pattern of organization of cells. (d) Serial repetition of the segments. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc. where the body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit___________symmetry. (a) radial (b) bilateral (c) asymmetrical (d) non- symmetrical Which of the following is a fresh water sponge? (a) Sycon (b) Euspongia (c) Spongilla (d) Pleurobrachia Few cnidarians like corals have a skeleton composed of (a) calcium hydroxide (b) calcium sulphate (c) calcium carbonate (d) sodium bicarbonate Meandrina (brain coral) belongs to phylum (a) porifera (b) coelenterata (c) ctenophora (d) platyhelminthes In ctenophora, the body bears _______ external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion. (a) five (b) six (c) seven (d) eight Flame cells present in platyhelminthes are specialized in (a) respiration and absorption. (b) osmoregulation and circulation. (c) respiration and excretion. (d) osmoregulation and excretion. Polyp phase is absent in (a) Hydra (b) Aurelia (c) Physalia (d) Obelia

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

Chapter

Animal Kingdom

Which of the following group of animals reproduces only by sexual means? (a) Ctenophora (b) Cnidaria (c) Porifera (d) Protozoa __________ is responsible for maintaining the current of water in sponge. (a) Osculum (b) Porocytes (c) Spongocoel (d) Choanocytes Aquatic annelids (like Nereis) possess lateral appendages called ______________, which help in swimming. (a) visceral hump (b) parapodia (c) radula (d) spicules Which of the following belong to phylum arthropoda? (a) Bombyx and Apis (b) Laccifer and Anopheles (c) Locusta and Limulus (d) All of the above Which of the following is a living fossil? (a) Balanoglossus (b) Echinus (c) Ancylostoma (d) Limulus A file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula, present in the phylum __________. (a) arthropoda (b) mollusca (c) echinodermata (d) chordata In phylum arthropoda, excretion takes place through (a) nephridia (b) flame cells (c) malphigian tubules (d) gills In phylum echinodermata, the adult echinoderms are ______A_________ but larvae are _______B______ . (a) A – radially symmetrical; B – bilaterally symmetrical (b) A – bilaterally symmetrical; B – radially symmetrical (c) A – bilaterally symmetrical; B – asymmetrical (d) A – metamerically segmented; B – asymmetrical In which of the phylum, excretory organ like proboscis gland is present? (a) Hemichordata (b) Chordata (c) Echinodermata (d) Annelida Which of the following is not a chordate character? (a) Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits (b) Ventral heart (c) Solid and ventral nerve cord (d) Presence of post-anal tail

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

Which of the following possesses electric organs and belongs to class chondrichthyes? (a) Torpedo (b) Petromyzon (c) Trygon (d) Exocoetus Which of the following possesses poison sting and belongs to class chondrichthyes? (a) Labeo (b) Myxine (c) Clarias (d) Trygon Which of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’? (a) Mackerals and rohu (b) Lampreys and hag fishes (c) Guppies and hag fishes (d) Lampreys and eels In amphibians, respiration occurs through (a) gills (b) lungs (c) skin (d) all of these In amphibians, heart is ________ chambered. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) none of these Heart is three - chambered in reptiles, except (a) turtle (b) Chameleon (c) Naja (Cobra) (d) crocodile Which of the following is a poisonous snake? (a) Naja (Cobra) (b) Bangarus (Krait) (c) Viper (Viper) (d) All of these Which of the following is a chordate feature and not shared by the non-chordates ? (a) Metamerism (b) Axial organization (c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Pharyngeal gill slits

(i)

31.

32.

33.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 28.

29.

30.

Which of the following statements (i – v) are incorrect? (i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthropods used for swimming. (ii) Radula in molluscs are structures involved in excretion. (iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious. (iv) Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry. (v) Ctenophorans are diploblastic. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i), (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (v) Which of the following statements (i – v) are incorrect ? (i) Circulatory system in arthropods is of closed type. (ii) Parapodia in annelids helps in swimming. (iii) Phylum mollusca is the second largest animal phylum. (iv) Aschelminthes are dioecious. (a) (i) only (b) (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statements?

34.

35.

These are primitive multicellular animals and have cellular level of organization. (ii) Digestion is intracellular. (iii) They have a water transport or canal system. (iv) They reproduce asexually by fragmentation and sexually by formation of gametes. (a) Porifera (b) Ctenophora (c) Coelenterata (d) Platyhelminthes Which of the following statements (i - v) are correct ? (i) The pelvic fins of female sharks bear claspers. (ii) In Obelia, polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae form the polyps asexually. (iii) Flame cells in platyhelminthes help in osmoregulation and excretion. (iv) In non-chordates, central nervous system is ventral, solid and double. (v) Pinnae are present in mammals. (a) (ii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i), (iii) and (v) (c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Which one of the following statement regarding coelom of given animals is correct? (a) Round worms (aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates. (b) Molluscs are acoelomates. (c) Insects are pseudocoelomates. (d) Flatworms (platyhelminthes) are coelomates. Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) They are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organisation. (ii) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion. (iii) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular. (iv) Reproduction takes place only by sexual means. Which of the following phylum is being described by above statements? (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Arthropoda (c) Mollusca (d) Ctenophora Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statements? (i) They are bilaterally symmetrical,triploblastic, segmented and coelomate animals. (ii) The body consists of head, thorax, abdomen and have jointed appendages. (iii) Circulatory system is of open type. (iv) Excretion takes place through malphigian tubules. (a) Arthropoda (b) Annelida (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata The following statement are associated with the occurrence of notochord. Identify the incorrect statement. (a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidians. (b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog. (c) It is absent throughout the life in humans from the very beginning. (d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.

EBD_7209

Biology

Animal Kingdom 36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

Which of the following characteristics is correct for reptilia? (a) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears. (b) Body is covered with moist skin and is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca. (c) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton and air-bladder regulate buoyancy. (d) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton and body is covered with placoid scales. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) Prawn has two pairs of antennae. (b) Nematocysts are characteristic feature of the phylum cnidaria. (c) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body. (d) Animals that belong to phylum porifera are exclusively marine. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding class aves? (i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified for walking, swimming or clasping the tree branches. (ii) Heart is completely four-chambered. (iii) They are warm- blooded (homoiothermous) animals i.e., they are able to maintain a constant body temperature. (iv) They are oviparous and development is direct. (a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which one of the following categories of animals is correctly described with no single exception in it? (a) In chondrichthyes notochord is persistent throughout life. (b) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing. (c) All sponges are marine. (d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal). Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding flatworms ? (a) They are acoelomates. (b) They are bilaterally symmetrical. (c) They lack a digestive system. (d) They have a circulatory system. Which of the following is not a characteristic of phylum echinodermata ? (a) They have a water vascular system. (b) They have an internal skeleton. (c) They are protostomes. (d) They have bilateral symmetry at larval stage.

42.

43.

44.

45.

Which of the follwoing statement(s) is/are correct? (i) Organ systems in different group of animals show various patterns of complexities. (ii) The digestive system in platyhelminthes has only a single opening to the outside of the body that serve as both mouth and anus, and is hence called complete. (iii) In open type of circulatory system, the blood is pumped out of the heart and the cells and tissues are directly bathed in it. (iv) In closed type, the blood is circulated through a series of vessels of varying diameters (arteries, veins and capillaries). (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (i) Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an external ectoderm and an internal endoderm, are called diploblastic animals. (ii) Notochord is an ectodermally derived rod like structure formed on the ventral side during embryonic development in some animals. (iii) In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm and such a body cavity is called pseudocoelom. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata? (i) They are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or freeswimming, radially symmetrical animals. (ii) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening called hypostome. (iii) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular. (iv) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum aschelminthes? (i) The body is circular in cross-section hence the name roundworms. (ii) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx. (iii) Sexes are separate (dioecious), i.e., males and females are distinct. (iv) Nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum mollusca? (a) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals. (b) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump. (c) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula. (d) All of the above Which of the following class is being correctly described by given statements (i - iv)? (i) All living members of this class are ectoparasites on some fishes. (ii) They have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws. (iii) Circulation is of closed type. (iv) They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawing, within a few days they die. (a) Cyclostomata (b) Chondrichthyes (c) Osteichthyes (d) Amphibia Which of the following class is being described by the given statements (i - iv)? (i) They are found in a variety of habitats- polar icecaps, deserts, mountains, forests, grasslands and dark caves. (ii) Most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of mammary glands by which the young ones are nourished. (iii) Heart is four-chambered. (iv) Sexes are separate and fertilization is internal. (a) Reptilia (b) Aves (c) Mammalia (d) Amphibia Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for class amphibia? (i) Body is divisible into head and trunk. (ii) Respiration is through gills only. (iii) The heart is two chambered i.e. one auricle and one ventricle. (iv) Fertilization is internal. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Platyhelminthes has incomplete digestive system. (b) In coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more complex. (c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworms and leeches are dioecious. (d) Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals of those phylum whose over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods. Refer the following statement and answer the question. 'Name of "X" is derived from stinging capsules. It exhibits metagenesis containing two body forms in which sessile and cylindrical form is called "Y" and umbrella shaped

and free swimming is called "Z". Identify X, Y, and Z. X Y Z a. Coelenterate Polyp Medusa b. Cnidarian Medusa Polyp c. Ctenophora Radula Hypostome d. Porifera Osculum Radula

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 57.

Match the types of animals given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct option. Column -I Column -II (Types of animals) (Examples) A. Limbless reptiles I. Elephant B. Jawless vertebrates II. Lamprey C. Flightless bird III. Ichthyophis D. Largest IV. Ostrich terrestrial animal E. Limbless amphibia V. Cobra (a) A – II; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – III (b) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III (c) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – IV; E – III (d) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III

EBD_7209

Biology

Animal Kingdom 58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their exeretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below. Column- I Column -II (Organism) (Excretory structures) A. Cockroach I. Nephridia B. Cat fish II. Malpighian tubules C. Earthworm III. Kidneys D. Balanoglossus IV. Flame cells E. Flatworm V. Proboscis gland (a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV Match the characteristic feature/terms given in column I with the phylum to which they belongs given in column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Characteristic (Phylum) feature/term) A. Choanocytes I. Platyhelminthes B. Cnidoblasts II. Ctenophora C. Flame cells III. Porifera D. Nephridia IV. Coelenterata E. Comb plates V. Annelida (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – III (b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III (c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – II; E – IV (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II Column I contains zoological names of animals and column II contains their common name. Match the following and choose the correct option. Column -I Column- II A. Physalia I. Sea anemone B. Meandrina II. Brain coral C. Gorgonia III. Sea fan D. Adamsia IV. Portuguese man-of-war (a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV Match the organisms given in column-I with their common name given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column -I Column -II (Organisms) (Comman name) A. Pennatula I. Sea-lily B. Antedon II. Sea- pen C. Echinus III. Sea-urchin D. Cucumaria IV. Sea - cucumber (a) A – II; C – III; D – I; E – IV (b) A – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III (c) A – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV (d) A – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV Match the phylum given in column - I with their example given in column - II and choose the correct option.

Column -I (Phylum) Echinodermata Hemichordata Urochordata Cephalochordata

63.

64.

65.

Column- II (Examples) A. I. Ascidia, Doliolum B. II. Asterias, Ophiura C. III. Branchiostoma D. IV. Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus (a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III Match the phylum given in column - I with the special features present in them given in column - II and choose the correct option. Column -I Column- II (Phylum) (Special features present) A. Porifera I. Mammary glands B. Mollusca II. Cloaca C. Ctenophora III. Choanocytes D. Amphibia IV. Radula E. Mammalia V. Comb plates (a) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I (b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – I (c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I (d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II; E – I In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched? Genus Two characters Class/ name phylum (a) Ascaris (i) Body segmented Annelida (ii) Males and females distinct (b) Salamandra (i) A tympanum Amphibia represents ear (ii) Fertilization is internal (c) Pteropus (i) Skin possesses Mammalia hair (ii) Viviparous (d) Aurelia (i) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata (ii) Organ level of organization In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and phylum are not correctly matched ? Genus name

(a) Pila

Two characters (i) Body segmented

Phylum Mollusca

Mouth with radula (b) Asterias

(ii) Spiny skinned Water vascular system (iii) Pore bearing Canal system

Echinodermata

Porifera

(iv) Jointed appendages (d) Periplaneta

Chitinous exoskeleton

Arthropoda

66.

Match the animal name (column-I), with its characteristics (column-II), and the phylum/class (column-III) to which it belongs. Co lumn - I Co lumn- II (a) Ichthyo p his Terres trial (b) Limu lu s

Colu mn -III Reptilia

Bo dy Pis ces co vered b y chitino us exo s keleto n

Rad ially Po rifera s y mmetrical (d) Petro myzo n Ecto paras ite Cyclo s tomata

67.

68.

69.

Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its characteristic feature without even a single exception ? (a) Reptilia : possess 3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle. (b) Chordata : Possess a mouth provided with an upper and lower jaw. (c) Chondrichthyes : Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton. (d) Mammalia : Give birth to young one. Column I contains the characteristics features and column II contains the function/ location. Select the correct match from the option given below. Column-I Column-II (Characteristic (Function/Location) feature) A. Water canal system (i) Sponges B. Comb plates (ii) Help in swimming C. Nephridia (iii) Present in mollusca D. Jointed appendages (iv) Characteristics of roundworm E. Muscular foot (v) A body part of arthropoda (vi) Helps in reproduction (vii) Platyhelminthes (viii) Helps in osmoregulation and excretion (ix) Eight ciliated external rows present in a body of ctenophora. A B C D E (a) (i) (ix) (viii) (v) (iii) (b) (iii) (i) (vi) (ii) (v) (c) (ii) (v) (i) (iv) (ix) (d) (iii) (vi) (iv) (v) (i) Match the terms/feature given in column I with their examples given in column II and select the correct match from the option given below.

70.

Column-I Column-II (Term/Feature) (Examples) A. Gregarious pest (i) Hirudinaria B. Vector (ii) Planaria C. Oviparous with (iii) Sepia indirect development D. Metameres (iv) Aedes E. High regeneration (v) Locust capacity A B C D E (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (b) (iii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i) (c) (iii) (i) (v) (ii) (iv) (d) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Match the features given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct match from the option given below. Column-I Column-II (Features) (Examples) A. Pseudocoelomates (i) Hydra, Adamsia B. Diploblastic (ii) Ctenoplana, Aurelia C. Cellular level of (iii) Ascaris, Wuchereria organization D. Radial symmetry (iv) Sycon, Spongilla E. Metamerism (v) Pheretima, Neries A B C D E (a) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (v) (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (v)

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 71.

The given figures (A & B) shows the germinal layer. Mesoglea

Ectoderm Endoderm

Mesoderm A

72.

The animals having structures shown in the figures are respectively called (a) diploblastic, triploblastic (b) triploblastic, diploblastic (c) diploblastic, diploblastic (d) triploblastic, triploblastic Refer the figures A, B, C and D given below. Which of the following options shows the correct name of the animals shown by the figures A, B, C and D ?

EBD_7209

Biology

Animal Kingdom

76. Identify the figure with its correct name and phylum.

73.

(a) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pila (b) A – Locust, B – Prawn, C – Scorpion, D – Pila (c) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Snail (d) A – Butterfly, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pila Refer the given figures A, B, C and D and identify the option which shows their correct name. D B

(a) Sycon - Porifera (b) Aurelia - Coelenterata (c) Pleurobrachia - Ctenophora (d) Tapeworm - Platyhelminthes 77. Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option .

A B C D (a) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia (b) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia (c) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia (d) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast 74. Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one of the four options all the items A, B and C are correctly identified ?

A B C (a) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla (b) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon (c) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia (d) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla 75. Identify the figures and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A B C (a) A - Male Ascaris, B - Hirudinaria (leech), C- Nereis (b) A - Female Ascaris, B - Nereis, C-Hirudinaria (leech) (c) A - Female Ascaris B- Hirudinaria (leech), C - Nereis (d) A - Male Ascaris, B - Nereis, C- Hirudinaria (leech) 78. Identify the animals shown in the given figures A, B and C from options given below.

A B C (a) A - Octopus; B -Asterias, C- Ophiura (b) A - Asterias; B - Ophiura, C- Octopus (c) A - Echinus; B - Octopus C - Ophiura (d) A - Ophiura; B - Echinus, C- Octopus 79. Identify the figure with its correct name and phylum.

A - Pseudocoelomate; B - Coelomate, C-Acoelomate A - Coelomate, B - Pseudocoelomate, C- Acoelomate A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate; C - Pseudocoelomate A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate; C-Eucoelomate

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Cucumaria – Echinodermata Ascidia – Urochordata Balanoglossus – Hemichordata Hirudinaria – Annelida

80. The given figure shows some characteristic features marked as chordates. Identify the correct labelling A,B,C and D. A

83. The given figures of animals (A & B) are distinguished on the basis of symmetry. Select the correct option which shows the type of symmetry and its description against the animals.

C D

(a) A-Notochord; B-Post-anal part; C-Gill slits; D-Nerve cord (b) A-Nerve cord; B-Notochord; C-Post-anal part; D-Gill slits (c) A-Notochord; B-Nerve cord; C-Gill slits; D-Post-anal part (d) A-Gill slits; B-Post-anal part; C-Nerve cord; DNotochord 81. Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option which shows animals that regulate buoyancy with the help of air bladder.

(a) A : Biradial, organisms is divided into unequal halves by any plane through the central axis. (b) B: Bilateral, body is divided into equivalent right and left halves by only one plane. (c) A: Asymmetrical, organisms is not divided into equal halves by any plane through the central axis. (d) B: Radial, in which any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves. 84. The figure given below shows the germinal layers marked as A, B, C and D. Identify the label showing undifferentiated layer and its location? A

B C

A B C (a) A and B (b) A and C (c) B and C (d) All of the above. 82. The given figures A, B, C and D are the examples of first true land vertebrates. They are dominant in mesozoic era and belong to phylum ‘X’. Identify ‘X’ and the animals which have four chambered heart.

C (a) X – Reptile; B (c) X – Amphibia, C

(a) A, Between B & C (b) B, Between A & C (c) C, Between C & D (d) D, Between A & B 85. The figure given below is the characteristic structure of the phylum in which animals are aquatic, free swimming or sessile, mostly marine, radially symmetrical. Identify the phylum and correct function of the structure.

D (b) X – Reptile; A (d) X – Pisces; D

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Ctenophora; Emission of light. Porifera; Feeding, respiration and excretion. Cnidarian; Anchorage, Defense and food capturing Mollusca; Locomotion, transport of food and respiration.

EBD_7209

Biology

Animal Kingdom

86. Which of the following feature is not correct regarding the figure given below?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

It is an aquatic form. Circulatory system is of open type. It possesses parapodia for swimming. Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a double ventral nerve cord. 87. Which of the following animal's body is covered by calcareous shell and unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot, and visceral hump?

(a)

89. Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by the given figure?

(a) Diploblastic in nature. (b) Having radial symmetrical body. (c) Dioecious with direct development. (d) Presence of sensory tentacles on anterior head region. 90. Which of the following animals are bilaterally symmetrical?

1 (a) 1 & 2 (c) 3 & 4

(b)

(d) 92.

88. Which of the following animal contains respiratory organs like, gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system? 93.

(a)

(b) 94.

(c)

(d)

3 (b) 2 & 4 (d) 1 & 3

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 91.

(c)

95.

Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them? (a) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity (b) Garden lizard and crocodile - Three chambered heart (c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation (d) Sea horse and flying fish - Cold blooded (poikilothermal) Which of the following group of animals belongs to the same phylum? (a) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm (b) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta (c) Sponge, Sea anemone, starfish (d) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, mosquito Which of the following traits is not shared by both sea anemones and jellyfish ? (a) A medusa as the dominant stage in the life cycle. (b) Possession of a gastro vascular cavity. (c) Sexual reproduction. (d) Nematocysts present on the tentacles. The combination of a true coelom and repeating body segmentation allows the annelids (unlike the anatomically “simpler” worms) to do which of the following? (a) Attain complex body shapes and thus locomote more precisely. (b) Move through loose marine sediments. (c) Be hermaphroditic. (d) Inject paralytic poisons into their prey. The transition from aquatic to terrestrial lifestyles required many adaptations in the vertebrate lineage. Which of the following is not one of those adaptations ? (a) Switch from gill respiration to air-breathing lungs. (b) Improvements in water resistance of skin. (c) Alteration in mode of locomotion. (d) Development of feathers for insulation.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

Which of the following features distinguish mammals from other vertebrates ? (a) Hairy skin and oviparity (b) Hairy skin and mammary glands (c) Mammary glands and teeth (d) Pinna and teeth Which of the following sets of animals give birth to young ones? (a) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus. (b) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi. (c) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris. (d) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich. Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn? (a) Three pairs of legs and segmented body. (b) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae. (c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton. (d) Cephalothorax and tracheae. Which of the following is a correct match of a phylum with its three examples? (a) Platyhelminthes–Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius (b) Mollusca – Loligo, Sepia, Octopus (c) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula (d) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia Hemichordates have now been placed with the nonchordates, close to echinoderms, because true (a) notochord is absent. (b) pharyngeal gill-slits are lacking. (c) dorsal nerve cord is absent. (d) heart is lacking. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of kingdom animalia ? (a) Storage of carbohydrates as starch. (b) Multicellularity. (c) Obtaining nutrients by ingestion. (d) Having eukaryotic cells without walls. Which of the following characteristic distinguish arthropoda from annelids and molluscs ? (a) An external skeleton made of chitin (a polysaccharide) and protein rather than a shell made chiefly of mineral salts. (b) Subdivision of the legs into movable segments. (c) Distinct group of muscles, derived from many body segments, that move the separate parts of the exoskeleton. (d) All of the above Tracheae of cockroach and mammal are similar in having (a) paired nature. (b) non-collapsible walls. (c) ciliated inner lining. (d) origin from head.

104. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception is (a) the division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail. (b) body covered with exoskeleton. (c) the possession of two pairs of functional appendages. (d) the presence of well- developed skull. 105. The organisms attached to the substratum generally possess (a) one single opening to the digestive canal. (b) cilia on the surface to create water current. (c) radial symmetry. (d) asymmetrical body. 106. Which of the following statements is without exception in sponges ? (a) They all have calcareous spicules. (b) They have high regenerative power. (c) They are found only in marine water. (d) They are all radially symmetrical. 107. Which of the following characters is absent in all chordates? (a) Diaphragm (b) Coelom (c) Pharyngeal gill clefts (d) Dorsal nerve cord 108. Which of the following features in birds indicates their reptilian ancestory ? (a) Eggs with a calcareous shell (b) Scales on their hind limbs (c) Four-chambered heart (d) Two special chambers-crop and gizzard in their digestive tract 109. Which of the following characteristic is probably most responsible for the great diversification of insects on land? (a) Segmentation (b) Antennae (c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Exoskeleton 110. Which of the following is a connecting link between invertebrates and non-invertebrates? (a) Sphenodon (b) Balanoglossus (c) Tadpole larva (d) Crocodile 111. A student brought home a strange animal which he found outside under a rock. It had moist skin, a complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and had gone through torsion. Identify the phylum of the animal. (a) Porifera (b) Annelida (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata

EBD_7209

Biology

Animal Kingdom 112. Identify the correct characteristics of porifera. (i) Commonly known as sea walnuts. (ii) Presence of ostia and collar cells. (iii) Exhibit tissue level of characteristics. (iv) It is the largest phylum of animal kingdom. (v) The body is supported by spicules and sponging fibers. (vi) Contains cnidocytes which is used for defense, anchorage and capturing of prey. (a) (ii), (v) only (b) (i), (ii), (vi) only (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) only (d) All of these. 113. A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of the characteristics given below. (i) They are metamerically segmented. (ii) They have closed circulatory system. (iii) They have circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion. Identify the specimen. (a) Prawn (b) Pheretima (c) Wuchereria (d) Ctenoplana 114. Refer the following animals and identify those which have a fluid filled body cavity with a complete lining derived from mesoderm. (i) Sycon (ii) Butterfly (iii) Nereis (iv) Sea fan (v) Scorpion (vi) Pila

(a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only (c) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) only (d) All of these 115. Refer the types of cells present in some animals. Each cell is specialized to perform a single specific function except (a) Cnidocytes (b) Choanocytes (c) Interstitial cells (d) Gastrodermal cells 116. Select the incorrect feature of mollusca from the given statements. (i) Terrestrial or aquatic animals having cellular system level of organization. (ii) Radial symmetrical and acoelomate animals and possesses two germinal layers. (iii) A file like rasping organ called radula is present. (iv) Usually dioecious and viviparous animals. (v) Examples include Pila, Octopus, and Dentalium. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (d) All the five statements.

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Which of the following plant parts elongates directly and leads to the formation of primary roots? (a) bud (b) radicle (c) plumule (d) root hair The primary roots and its branches constitute the (a) fibrous root system. (b) tap root system. (c) adventitious root system. (d) all of the above Fibrous root system is found in (a) monocotyledonous plants. (b) dicotyledonous plants. (c) bryophytes. (d) gymnosperms. Roots develop from parts of the plant other than radicle are called (a) tap roots (b) fibrous roots (c) adventitious roots (d) nodular roots Root hairs develop from (a) region of maturation (b) region of elongation (c) region of meristematic activity (d) root cap The part of the root which is most active in water absorption is called (a) root cap (b) maturation zone (c) meristematic zone (d) zone of elongation Fibrous roots develop in maize from (a) upper nodes (b) lower nodes (c) upper internodes (d) none of these Prop roots of banyan tree are meant for (a) respiration. (b) absorption of water from soil. (c) providing support to big tree. (d) all of the above. Stilt roots occur in __________ . (a) groundnut (b) rice (c) sugarcane (d) wheat

Chapter

Morphology of Flowering Plants

10. Pneumatophores are found in (a) the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lake. (b) the vegetation which is found in saline soil. (c) xerophytic condition. (d) hydrophytic condition. 11. Which of the following plants grow in swampy areas, where the roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards? (a) Potato (b) Opuntia (c) Rhizophora (d) Grass 12. Root differs from stem in having (a) nodes and internodes (b) axillary buds (c) multicellular hairs (d) unicellular hairs 13. Which of the following plant parts is generally green when young and later often becomes woody and dark brown? (a) stem (b) seed (c) leaves (d) flower 14. The regions of the stem where leaves are borne are called ____________ while ____________ are the portions between two ____________. (a) nodes, nodes and internodes (b) nodes, internodes and nodes (c) internodes, nodes and nodes (d) internodes, internodes and nodes 15. Which of the following gr oups of plants have underground stems? (a) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Euphorbia, zaminkand (b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia (c) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, zaminkand, Colocasia (d) Potato, cucumber, watermelon, zaminkand, Colocasia 16. Stem tendrils are found in (a) cucumber (b) pumpkins (c) grapevines (d) all of these 17. Which of the following is a modified stem for the protection of plants from browsing animals? (a) Tendrils (b) Thorns (c) Rhizome (d) Tuber

Morphology of Flowering Plants 18. A branch in which each node bearing a rossette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic plants like _________ and _________. (a) Hydrilla and Pistia (b) Eichhornia and Hydrilla (c) Pistia and Eichhornia (d) Pistia and Vallisneria 19. In which of the following plants, a slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis, and after growing aerially arch downwards to touch the ground? (a) Mint and jasmine (b) Banana and pineapple (c) Grass and stawberry (d) Pistia and Eichhornia 20. Which of the following is the green expanded part of leaf with vein and veinlets? (a) Petiole (b) Node (c) Stipule (d) Lamina 21. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess _________ venation, while _________ venation is the characteristic of most monocotyledons. (a) reticulate and parallel (b) parallel and reticulate (c) reticulate and perpendicular (d) obliquely and parallel 22. Which of the following is an example of pinnately compound leaf ? (a) Cucumber (b) Papaya (c) Cucurbita (d) Neem 23. The main purpose of phyllotaxy for the leaves is to provide sufficient_______. (a) soil (b) air (c) water (d) light 24. Alternate type of phyllotaxy is found in (a) china rose (b) mustard (c) sunflower (d) all of these 25. Which type of function is performed by the fleshy leaves of onion and garlic? (a) Storage (b) Reproduction (c) Photosynthesis (d) Protection 26. The flower is the reproductive unit in the ___________ meant for ___________ reproduction. (a) angiosperms and sexual (b) gymnosperms and sexual (c) algae and asexual (d) pteridophytes and asexual 27. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is known as__________. (a) asexual (b) bisexual (c) unisexual (d) multisexual 28. When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through the centre, it is known as (a) actinomorphic (b) zygomorphic (c) asymmetric (d) bisymmetric 29. A sterile stamen is known as (a) staminode (b) anther (c) pollen grain (d) filament

30. Pollen grains are produced within the _________of stamen. (a) ovary (b) anther (c) filament (d) connective 31. Which one of the following structure is not associated with gynoecium? (a) Ovary (b) Style (c) Stigma (d) Filament 32. During the post-fertilization period, the ovules develop into ___A _____ and the ovary matures into a ___B ____. (a) A - seeds; B - fruit (b) A - fruit; B - seeds (c) A - flower; B - seed (d) A - seeds; B - flower 33. A scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds are attached to the fruit is called as ________. (a) testa (b) tegmen (c) hilum (d) micropyle 34. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in which of the following plant group? (a) walnut and tamarind (b) cashew nut and litchi (c) french bean and coconut (d) groundnut and pomegranate 35. Floral formula of tomato/tobacco is (a)

K4–5 A10G(2)

(b)

K 2+2 C 4A2+4G 1

(c)

P 2 A 3G1

(d)

K(5) C(5)A5 G(2)

36. Botanical name of Cauliflower is (a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata (b) Brassica campesteris (c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis (d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera 37. Botanical name of banana is (a) Musa paradisica (b) Phaseolus vulgaris (c) Ricinus communis (d) Ananas sativus

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 38. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem. (b) Cloves of Allium sativum are fleshy scale leaves. (c) Corm of Colocasia is a modified root. (d) Tendril in Vitis vinifera is a modified axillary bud. 39. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Each stamen which represents the male reproductive organ consists of a stalk or a filament and an anther. (b) An actinomorphic flower can be dissected into two equal halves from any plane. (c) Superior ovary is found in hypogynous flowers. (d) When stamens are attached to petals, they are epiphyllous as in brinjal.

40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about calyx? (a) Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and are called sepals. (b) Sepals are green, leaf like structure and protect the flower in the bud stage. (c) The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals free) or polysepalous (sepals united). (d) Both (a) and (b) 41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about venation? (i) The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of leaf is called venation. (ii) Reticulate venation is the characteristic of monocots. (iii) When the veinlets form a network, the venation is termed as reticulate venation. (iv) When the veins run parallel to each other within a lamina, the venation is termed as parallel venation. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these 42. Which one of the following are not true for parietal placentation? (a) Ovules are borne on central axis. (b) Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes twochambered due to the formation of false septum. (c) Examples are mustard and Argemone. (d) Both (b) and (c) 43. Which one of the following characteristics is not related to gynoecium? (a) It is the female reproductive part of the flower. (b) It is composed of stamens. (c) Stigma is usually at the tip of the style and is the receptive surface for pollen grains. (d) Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached to a flattened, cushion like placenta. 44. Study the following statements and select the correct option (i) Buds are present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf. (ii) Pulvinus leaf-base is present in some leguminous plants. (iii) In Alstonia, the petioles expand, become green and synthesize food. (iv) Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in guava. (a) (ii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (iii) are incorrect. (b) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) and (iv) are incorrect. (c) (i) and (iv) are correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect. (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect. 45. Which of the following statements are correct? (i) From the region of elongation, some of the epidermal cells form root hairs. (ii) Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora. (iii) Adventitious roots are seen in the banyan tree. (iv) Maize and sugarcane have prop roots. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

Biology 46. Consider the following statements regarding the root system of angiosperms and choose the correct option given below. (i) In monocots, the fibrous root system arises from the base of the stem. (ii) The region of elongation is called the root hair region. (iii) In sweet potato, the adventitious roots get swollen and store food. (iv) The stems of maize and sugarcane have supporting roots called prop roots. (a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are wrong. (b) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) and (iv) are wrong. (c) (ii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (iii) are wrong. (d) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) and (iv) are wrong. 47. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not correct? (i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a flower. (ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane. (iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate. (iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the ovary. (v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic. (vi) Radical buds develop on roots. (a) (i) , (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (v) (c) (iii), (iv) and (vi) (d) (iv), (v) and (i) 48. Which of the following statements are correct about the leaf? (i) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne on the stem. (ii) It develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil. (iii) Leaves originate from root apical meristems and arranged in an acropetal order. (iv) They are the most important vegetative organs for reproduction. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) all of these 49. Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level. (ii) Ovary is half-inferior. (iii) Examples are plum, rose and peach. Which condition of flowers is being described by the above statements ? (a) hypogyny (b) perigyny (c) epigyny (d) none of these 50. Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) It is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch. (ii) It is usually of three types - alternate, opposite and whorled. (iii) It is meant for getting maximum amount of light. Which condition of plant is being described by the above statements? (a) Phyllotaxy (b) Venation (c) Inflorescencew (d) Aestivation

EBD_7209

Morphology of Flowering Plants 51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the fruit? (i) Fruit is a mature or ripened ovary, developed before fertilization. (ii) It consists of a wall or pericarp and seeds. (iii) When pericarp is thick and fleshy, it is differentiated into outer mesocarp, middle epicarp and inner endocarp. (iv) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a berry. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (ii) (d) All of these 52. Which of the following statement(s) is /are correct? (i) Many plants belonging to the family fabaceae are good ornamentals (Tulip, Gloriosa), source of medicine (Aloe) and vegetables (Asparagus). (ii) The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleorhiza and coleoptile respectively. (iii) A flower having either stamens or carpels is unisexual. (iv) Basal, alternate, linear, exstipulate with parallel venation types of leaves is found in the family liliaceae. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these 53. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Imbricate aestivation is found in the papilionaceous family. (b) Generally, sepals are green, leaf like and protect the flowers in the bud stage. (c) In cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower, hence is limitless in growth. (d) In axile placentation ovary is one chambered but it becomes two cambered due to the formation of false septum.

59.

Assertion : In stem, pericycle take active part in secondary growth. Reason : In dicots, pericycle has the capacity to produce lateral roots.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 60. Match column-I containing types of aestivation with their examples given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column-II (Type of aestivation) (Examples) A. Valvate I. Cotton B. Twisted II. Calotropis C. Imbricate III. Bean D. Vexillary IV. Gulmohar (a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV 61. Match the following placentation types given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I (Placentation Types) A. Basal

Column-II (Examples) Dianthus

B. Free central

II.

C. Parietal

III. Lemon

D. Axile

IV. Marigold

E. Marginal

Pea

Argemone

(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V (b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I (c) A – IV, B – I, C – V, D – III, E – II (d) A – IV, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – II 62. Match the following stem modifications given in column I with their examples given in column II and select the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I (Stem Modifications) A. Underground stem

Column-II (Found in) I. Euphorbia

B. Stem tendril

II. Opuntia

C. Stem thorns

III. Potato

D. Flattened stem

IV. Citrus

E. Fleshy cylindrical stem

V. Cucumber

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I A – III, B – IV, C – V, D – I, E – II A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II, E – I

63.

Match the andsoecium formula (given in column II) with their family (given in column I) and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Family) (Androecium formula) A. Brassicaceae I. A3 + 3 B. Fabaceae II. A(5) C. Solanaceae III. A(9) + 1 D. Liliaceae IV. A2 + 4 (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II 64. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Position of floral parts (Represented in) on thalamus) A. Hypogynous I. Ray florets of sunflower B. Perigynous II. Brinjal C Epigynous III Peach (a) A – II, B – I, C – III (b) A – I, B – II, C – III (c) A – III, B – II, C – I (d) A – II, B – III, C – I 65. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Bud in the I. Pitcher plant axil of leaf and venus fly trap B. Outer layer of II. Cacti seed coat C. Spines III. Testa (modified leaves) D. Leaves modified IV. Simple leaf to catch insects E. Fleshy leaves V. Garlic and onion with stored food (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V (b) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I (c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I, E – V (d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I, E – V 66. Match column-I with column-II and choose the option which shows their correct combination. Column-I Column-II A. Gamosepalous I. Flower of lily B. Polysepalous II. Sterile anther C. Gamopetalous III. Free petals D. Polypetalous IV. Free sepals E. Epiphyllous V. Fused petals F. Staminode VI. Fused sepals (a) A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – VI, F – II (b) A – IV, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – II, F – VI (c) A – VI, B – IV, C – III, D – V, E – I, F – II (d) A – VI, B – IV, C – V, D – III, E – II, F – I

67.

Matching colmun I with column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Coleorhiza I. Grapes B. Food storing tissue II. Mango C. Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize D. Single seeded fruit IV. Radicle developing from monocarpellary superior ovary E. Membranous V. Endosperm seed coat (a) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – V (b) A – IV, B – II, C – V, D – I, E – III (c) A – V, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E – II (d) A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – III 68. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Members of Fabaceae) (Economic importance) A. Gram, sem, moong, I. Medicine soyabean B. Soyabean,groundnut II. Ornamental C. Indigofera III. Fodder D. Sunhemp IV. Fibres E. Sesbania, Trifolium V. Dye F. Lupin, sweet potato VI. Edible oil G. Mulethi VII. Pulses (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V, F – VI, G – VII (b) A – VII, B – VI, C – V, D – IV, E – III, F – II, G – I (c) A – II, B – IV, C – VI, D – I, E – III, F – V, G – VII (d) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – VII, E – II, F – IV, G – VI 69. Match column - I, II and III and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II Column-III A.

Marginal

p. Sunflower, Marigold

Axile

II.

q. Dianthus, Primrose

Parietal

III.

Free central IV.

Mustard, Argemone

s. China rose, tomato, lemon

EBD_7209

Biology

Morphology of Flowering Plants

Basal

Pea

(a) A - V, t; B - II, s; C -I, r; D -III, q; E -IV, p (b) A - I, t; B - II, s; C - III, r; D - IV, p; E - V, q (c) A - V, p; B - II, s; C - I, q; D - III, r; E - IV, t (d) A - V, p; B - III, q; C - II, s; D - I, t; E - IV, r 70. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Placentation (i) Arrangement of flowers on the rachis B. Aestivation (ii) Modified shoot for sexual reproduction C. Inflorescence (iii)Arrangement of various whorls in the bud D. Flower (iv) Arrangement of ovules within an ovary A B C D (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

72. The given figures (A and B) show the modificaiton of roots.Which of the following statements regarding the figures is correct ?

(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food. (b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals & photosynthesis (c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow in sandy soil. (d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet potato shows tap root. 73. Which of the following option shows the correct labelling of the parts of leaf marked as A, B, C and D.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 71. The given figure shows the regions of root tip with labelling as A, B and C. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B and C. Region of mature cells A B C (a) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule (b) Lamina Stipule Axillary bud (c) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule (d) Leaflet Axillary bud Stipule 74. Identify the inflorescence shown by the given and B.

(a) A - Zone of elongation, B - Zone of meiosis, C Zone of mitosis. (b) A - Zone of maturation, B - Zone of meristematic activity, C - Zone of elongation. (c) A - Zone of mitosis, B - Zone of elongation, C - Zone of root cap. (d) A - Region of maturation, B - Region of elongation, C - Zone of meristematic activity.

(a) A-Cymose, B-Racemose (b) A-Racemose, B-Cymose (c) A-Racemose, B-Racemose (d) A-Cymose, B-Cymose

D Leaf base Leaf base Pedicel Leaf base figures A

75. Identify the different types of aestivation (A, B, C and D) in corolla and select the correct option.

79. Which one of the following options shows the correct labelling of the structure marked as A, B, C & D?

(a) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary (b) A-Vexillary, B-Valvate, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate (c) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-Twisted (d) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-Valvate 76. Given figures (A, B and C) show the position of floral parts on thalamus. (given as I, II and III) Select the correct combination.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A Gynoecium Gynoecium Microsporophyll Gynoecium

B Megasporophyll Stamen Stamen Stamen

C Ovule Seed Ovule Ovule

D Thalamus Thalamus Thalamus Thalamus

80. The given figure shows the parts of mango and coconut. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B, C and D marked in the figures. I. Hypogynous flower II. Perigynous flower III. Epigynous flower (a) A-I, B-II, C-III (b) A-I, B-III, C-II (c) A-III, B-II, C-I (d) A-III, B-I, C-II 77. The given figures (A & B) show two types of compound leaves. Choose the option which identity the correct compound leaf and their example (c).

(a) A - Pinnately compound leaf, C - Neem (b) A - Palmately compound leaf, C - Neem (c) B- Pinnately compound leaf, C - Silk cotton (d) B- Palmately compound leaf, C - Silk cotton 78. Identify the kind of phyllotaxy shown in the given figures A, B, and C.

(a) A-Alternate, B - Opposite, C - Whorled (b) A- Whorled, B - Opposite, C -Alternate (c) A-Alternate, B - Whorled, C - Opposite (d) A-Whorled, B -Alternate, C - Opposite

A B C D (a) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Seed, Endocarp (b) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovule, Endocarp (c) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovary, Endocarp (d) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Embryo, Endocarp 81. Which one of the options shows the correct labelling of the parts marked as A, B, C and D in a typical structure of dicotyledonous seeds ?

(a) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Radicle, D - Cotyledon, E - Plumule (b) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle (c) A - Micropyle, B - Hilum, C - Plumule, D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle (d) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Radicle, E - Cotyledon

EBD_7209

Biology

Morphology of Flowering Plants

82. The given figure shows a typical structure of monocotyledonous seeds. Identify the parts A, B, C, D and E marked in the given figures.

(C)

(a) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo, C - Scutellum, D - Coleorhiza, E - Coleoptile (b) A- Embryo, B - Endosperm, C - Scutellum, D - Coleoptile, E - Coleorhiza (c) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo, C - Scutellum, D - Coleoptile, E - Coleorhiza (d) A - Embryo, B - Endosperm, C - Scutellum, D - Coleorhiza, E - Coleoptile 83. Identify the correct families of the given plant species (A, B and C)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Both A and B 85. The given figure shows the parts of flowering plant. Which parts of the given figure were involved in the following functions: (i) Storing reserve food material (ii) Synthesis of plant growth regulators. (iii) Absorption of water and minerals from the soil. (iv) Providing a proper anchorage to the plant parts 1 2 3 4

(A)

(B)

(C)

6 (a) A - Liliaceae, B - Compositae, C - Malvaceae (b) A - Fabaceae, B - Solanaceae, C - Liliaceae (c) A - Compositae, B - Malvaceae, C - Liliaceae (d) A - Solanaceae, B - Fabaceae, C - Liliaceae 84. The given figure (A, B, and C) shows different types of roots. Identify the root which is seen in wheat plant and originate from the base of the stem?

Main root

Laterals

(A)

(B)

(a) (c)

5 and 6 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 6 (d) 2, 4, 5 and 6

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 86. Floral features are mainly used in angiosperms identification because (a) flowers are of various colours. (b) flowers can be safely pressed. (c) reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts. (d) flowers are good materials for identification. 87. Aleurone layer helps in (a) storage of food in endosperm. (b) protection of embryo. (c) utilization of stored food. (d) all of the above. 88. Fibrous root system is better adopted than tap root system for (a) transport of organic matter. (b) absorption of water and minerals.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

(c) storage of food. (d) anchorage of plant to soil. Main function of leaf is (a) exchange of gases (b) increase the beauty of a tree (c) manufacturing of food (d) nerve impulse induction Rearrange the following zones seen in the regions of root tip and choose the correct option. (A) Root hair zone (B) Zone of meristems (C) Root cap zone (D) Zone of maturation (E) Zone of elongation (a) C, B, E, A, D (b) A, B, C, D, E (c) D, E, A, C, B (d) E, D, C, B, A Which is not a stem modification ? (a) Rhizome of ginger (b) Corm of Colocasia (c) Pitcher of Nepenthes (d) Tuber of potato Most prominent function of inflorescence is (a) dispersal of seeds. (b) formation of more fruits. (c) formation of pollen grains. (d) dispersal of pollens. The character of flower which is represented by floral formula but not by floral diagram is (a) aestivation (b) placentation (c) position of gynoecium (d) adhesion of stamen The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas possess no endosperm because (a) these plants are not angiosperms. (b) there is no double fertilization in them. (c) endosperm is not formed in them. (d) endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development. Seeds are regarded as products of sexual reproduction because they (a) can be stored for a long time. (b) are result of fusion of pollen tube. (c) are result of fusion of gametes. (d) give rise to new plants. Which of the following is correct with reference to floral character of the family solanaceae? (a) Racemose, zygomorphic, unisexual, floral characters (b) Racemose, zygomorphic, bisexual, polypetalous (c) Axillary, bisexual, actinomorphic, epipetalous (d) Axillary, actinomorphic, bisexual, epipetalous Which of the following represents the floral characters of liliaceae? (a) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular ovary, axile placentation. (b) Actinomorphic, polyphyllous, unilocular ovary, axile placentation. (c) Tricorpellary, actinomorphic, polyandrous, superior ovary, axile placentation. (d) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous, inferior ovary, marginal placentation.

98. In flower (X), the gynoecium occupies the highest position while the other parts are situated below it. The ovary in such flowers is said to be Y. Identify X and Y and select the correct option. X Y (a) Epigynous Inferior (b) Perigynous Superior (c) Hypogynous Superior (d) Perigynous Half-inferior 99. Which of the following is not the characteristic features of fabaceae? (a) Tap root system, compound leaves and raceme inflorescence. (b) Flowers actinomorphic, twisted aestivation and gamopetalous. (c) Stamens 10, introrse, basifixed, dithecous. (d) Monocarpellary, ovary superior and bent stigma. 100. How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation? Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sunhemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Three 101. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished from root because (a) it lacks chlorophyll. (b) it stores food. (c) it has nodes and internodes. (d) it has xylem and vessels. 102. Which one of the following is correct explanation for the given floral formula ? %O K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1 + (a) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and gamosepalous, petals five and papilionaceous, anthers ten and monadelphous, ovary superior and monocarpellary. (b) Zygomorphic, unisexual, sepals five and gamosepalous, petals five and polypetalous, anthers nine united and one free, ovary superior and monocarpellary. (c) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and gamosepalous, petals five and papilionaceous, anthers ten and diadelphous, ovary superior and monocarpellary. (d) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and united, petals five and united, anthers ten and diadelphous, ovary superior and monocarpellary. 103. The main function(s) of root system is/are (a) absorption of water and minerals from the soil (b) storing reserve food material (c) synthesis of plant growth regulators (d) All of the above

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Biology

Morphology of Flowering Plants 104. The region of the root-tip whose cells undergo rapid elongation and enlargement and are responsible for the growth of the root in length is called the (a) region of maturation. (b) region of elongation. (c) region of meristematic activity. (d) root hairs. 105. The region of the root-tip which is involved in the formation of root hairs by epidermal cells is called the (a) region of maturation. (b) region of meristematic activity. (c) region of elongation. (d) none of the above. 106. The X is small and situated in a groove at one end of the endosperm. It consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as Y and a short axis with a plumule and a Z. Identify X, Y and Z.

X Y Z (a) Scutellum Embryo Radicle (b) Embryo Scutellum Radicle (c) Scutellum Radicle Embryo (d) Radicle Embryo Scutellum 107. "X" is the outermost whorl of the flower and contains "Y". Y is green, leaf like and protect the other whorls of the flower. Identify X and Y. (a) X - Calyx; Y - Sepals (b) X - Corolla; Y - Petals (c) X - Gynoecium; Y - Fruit (d) X - Androecium; Y - Ovary 108. It is a proteinous layer and the outer covering of endosperm which separates the embryo. Identify the layer. (a) Tegmen (b) Scutellum (c) Hyaline layer (d) Aleurone layer

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

A tissue is a group of cells which are (a) similar in origin, but dissimilar in form and function. (b) dissimilar in origin, form and function. (c) dissimilar in origin, but similar in form and function. (d) similar in origin, form and function. Apical, intercalary and lateral meristems are differentiated on the basis of (a) origin (b) function (c) position (d) development Which of following helps bamboo and grasses to elongate ? (a) Apical meristems (b) Lateral meristems (c) Secondary meristems (d) Intercalary meristems Which meristem helps in increasing girth? (a) Lateral meristem (b) Intercalary meristem (c) Primary meristem (d) Apical meristem Cells of permanent tissues are specialized (a) functionally. (b) only structurally. (c) both structurally and functionally. (d) for mitosis. The apical meristem of the root is present (a) in all the roots. (b) only in radicals. (c) only in tap roots. (d) only in adventitious roots. During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells ‘left behind’ from the shoot apical meristem, constitute the (a) lateral meristem (b) axillary bud (c) cork cambium (d) fascicular cambium Which of the following is responsible for the formation of an embryonic shoot called axillary bud? (a) Lateral meristem (b) Apical meristem (c) Intercalary meristem (d) Both (b) and (c)

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

Chapter

Anatomy of Flowering Plants

A plant tissue when stained showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in cells wall of its cells. The tissue is called (a) collenchyma (b) sclerenchyma (c) xylem (d) meristem Various functions like photosynthesis, storage, excretion performed by _____________. (a) sclerenchyma (b) parenchyma (c) collenchyma (d) aerenchyma Sclerenchyma usually___________and_____________ protoplasts. (a) live, without (b) dead, with (c) live, with (d) dead, without The __________ occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants. (a) parenchyma (b) sclerenchyma (c) collenchyma (d) aerenchyma Xylem functions as a conducting tissue for water and minerals from _________to the ______and__________. (a) roots, stems, leaves (b) stems, roots, leaves (c) leaves, stems, roots (d) leaves, stems, leaves Bast fibres are made up of _____________cells. (a) sclerenchymatous (b) chlorenchymatous (c) parenchymatous (d) aerenchymatous Which one of the following have vessels as their characteristic feature? (a) Angiosperms (b) Gymnosperms (c) Pteridophytes (d) Bryophytes An organised and differentiated cellular structure having cytoplasm but no nucleus is called _________. (a) vessels (b) xylem parenchyma (c) sieve tubes (d) tracheids A vascular bundle in which the protoxylem is pointing to the periphery is called __________. (a) endarch (b) exarch (c) radial (d) closed

Anatomy of Flowering Plants 18. In dicot root (a) vascular bundles are scattered and with cambium (b) vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and have cambium (c) xylem and phloem radially arranged (d) xylem is always endarch 19. Pericycle of roots produces (a) mechanical support (b) lateral roots (c) vascular bundles (d) adventitious buds 20. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the _____________ and the metaxylem lies towards the ____________ of the organ. (a) centre; periphery (b) periphery; centre (c) periphery; periphery (d) centre; centre 21. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by (a) presence of cortex. (b) position of protoxylem. (c) absence of secondary xylem. (d) absence of secondary phloem. 22. Monocot leaves possess (a) intercalary meristem (b) lateral meristem (c) apical meristem (d) mass meristem 23. What is true about a monocot leaf ? (a) Reticulate venation (b) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis (c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and spongy tissues (d) Well differentiated mesophyll 24. Lignin is the important constituent in the cell wall of (a) phloem (b) parenchyma (c) xylem (d) cambium 25. Heartwood differs from sapwood in: (a) presence of rays and fibres (b) absence of vessels and parenchyma (c) having dead and non–conducting elements (d) being susceptible to pests and pathogens 26. How does autumn wood differ from spring wood ? (a) Broad vessels & tracheids (b) Narrow vessels & tracheids (c) Red colour of xylem (d) Cambium 27. Best method to determine the age of tree is to (a) measure its diameter (b) count number of leaves (c) count number of annual rings at base stem (d) number of branches

28. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are (a) the parts of secondary xylem and phloem. (b) the parts of pericycle. (c) lateral meristems. (d) apical meristems. 29. Phellogen and phellem respectively denote (a) cork and cork cambium, (b) cork cambium and cork, (c) secondary cortex and cork, (d) cork and secondary cortex, 30. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between phloem/ bark and wood of a dicot is (a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium (c) endodermis (d) both (a) & (c) 31. Cork is formed from (a) phellogen (b) vascular cambium (c) phloem (d) xylem 32. Main function of lenticel is (a) transpiration (b) guttation (c) gaseous exchange (d) both (a) & (c)

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 33.

34.

35.

36.

Which of the following characteristic is correct about a monocot leaf? (a) Having reticulate venation. (b) Absence of bulliform cells. (c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and spongy tissues. (d) Well differentiated mesophyll cells are present. Which is not correct about sclereids? (a) These are parenchyma cells with thickened lignified walls. (b) These are elongated and flexible with tapered ends. (c) These are commonly found in the shells of nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear, etc. (d) These are also called stone cells. Which one of the following option is correct about bulliform/motor cell ? (a) It is seen in grasses. (b) It is large-sized, thin-walled colourless, vacuolate cells on the adaxial surface. (c) It helps in rolling of leaf to minimise water loss when it is flaccid. (d) All of the above All the following statements regarding sieve tube elements are correct except that (a) their end walls have perforated sieve plates which become impregnated with lignin at maturity. (b) they possess peripheral cytoplasm as well as a large vacuole. (c) distinct proteinaceous inclusions, the P-proteins are seen evenly distributed throughout the lumen. (d) long, slender, tube-like structures arranged in longitudinal series.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

Which of the following statements is not correct for stomatal apparatus? (a) Inner walls of guard cells are thick and in elastic. (b) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria. (c) Guard cells does not possess subsidiary cells. (d) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange. Which of the following statement is correct regarding simple permanent tissue ? (a) The collenchyma occurs in layers below the epidermis in monocotyledonous plants. (b) Sclerenchyma cells are usually dead and without protoplasts. (c) Xylem parenchyma cells are living and thin walled and their cell walls are made up of lignin. (d) The companion cells are specialized sclerenchymatous cells. Which of the following statement is not correct about xylem? (a) It is a conducting tissue for water and minerals from roots to the stem and leaves. (b) It also provides mechanical strength to the plants parts. (c) It is composed of four different kinds of elements, namely, tracheids, companion cells, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma. (d) Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about epidermal tissue system? (a) It forms the outer-most covering of the whole plant body and comprises epidermal cells, stomata and the epidermal appendages - the trichomes and hairs. (b) Epidermal cells are parenchymatous with a small amount of cytoplasm lining the cell wall and a large vacuole. (c) Epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick layer called the cuticle which prevents the loss of water. (d) All of the above Read the following statements and select the correct one(s). (i) In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels are the main water transporting elements. (ii) The presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of angiosperms. (iii) Xylem fibres have highly thinned walls and their cell walls are made up of cellulose. (iv) Xylem parenchyma store food materials in the form of starch or fat and other substances like tannins. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Biology 42. Read the following statements and answer the questions. (i) It is made up of elongated, tapering cylindrical cells which have dense cytoplasm and nucleus. (ii) The cell wall is composed of cellulose and has pits through which plasmodesmatal connections exist between the cells. (iii) It is absent in most of the monocotyledons. Which part of plant tissue is being described by the above statements? (a) Sieve tube elements (b) Companion cells (c) Phloem parenchyma (d) Phloem fibres 43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the ground tissue system? (i) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue. (ii) It consists of xylem and phloem. (iii) In leaves, it consists of thin – walled chloroplast containing cells called mesophyll. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these 44. Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) They are present on the stem as epidermal hairs. (ii) They are usually multicellular. (iii) They may be branched or unbranched and soft or stiff. (iv) They help in preventing water loss due to transpiration. Which part of epidermal tissue system is being described by the above statements? (a) Stomata (b) Guard cells (c) Epidermis (d) Trichomes 45. Which of the following statements are correct about phloem? (i) Phloem transports food materials, usually from roots to the other parts of the plant. (ii) It is composed of sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres. (iii) The companion cells are specialised parenchymatous cells which are closely associated with phloem parenchyma. (iv) The first formed primary phloem consists of narrow sieve tubes and referred to as protophloem and the later formed phloem has bigger sieve tubes and referred to as metaphloem. (a) Both (i) and (iv) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these 46. Which anatomy of plants is being described by the statements given below ? (i) The cortex consists of several layers of thin-walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.

EBD_7209

Anatomy of Flowering Plants (ii)

47.

48.

49.

50.

The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells have a depostion of waterimpermeable, waxy material -suberin- in form of casparian strips. (iii) Secondary growth takes place. (iv) Pith is small or inconspicuous. (a) Dicotyledonous root (b) Monocotyledonous root (c) Dicotyledonous stem (d) Monocotyledonous stem Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about dorsiventral (dicotyledonous) leaf ? (i) The adaxial (upper surface) bears more stomata than the abaxial (lower surface) epidermis. (ii) Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and carry out photosynthesis, is made up of parenchyma. (iii) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma. (a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement is correct about heart wood/duramen ? (i) It does not help in water and mineral conduction. (ii) It is dark coloured but soft. (iii) It has tracheary elements filled with tannins, resins, gums, oil, etc. (iv) It is a peripheral part. (v) They are sensitive to microbes and insects, hence least durable. (a) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (iv) Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) Cambium is very active and produces a large number of xylary elements having vessels with wider cavities. (ii) It is also called early wood. (iii) It is lighter in colour and has lower density. Which type of wood is described by the above statements? (a) Sap wood (b) Heart wood (c) Spring wood (d) Autumn wood Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) It has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a large number of scattered vascular bundles and a large parenchymatous ground tissue. (ii) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed. (iii) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally located ones. (iv) Phloem parenchyma is absent, and water- containing cavities are present within the vascular bundles. Which plant anatomy is being described by the above statements? (a) Dicotyledonous root (b) Monocotyledonous root (c) Dicotyledonous stem (d) Monocotyledonous stem

51.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) Uneven thickening of cell wall is characteristic of sclerenchyma. (ii) Periblem forms cortex of the stem and the root. (iii) Tracheids are the chief water transporting elements in gymnosperms. (iv) Companion cell is devoid of nucleus at maturity. (v) The commercial cork is obtained from Quercus suber. (a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (v) only (c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (v) only 52. Which of the following statements are correct ? (i) Xylem transports water and minerals. (ii) Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells in phloem. (iii) The first formed primary xylem is called metaxylem. (iv) Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of collenchymatous cells. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) 53. Which type of plant tissue is being described by the given statements? (i) It consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified cell walls having a few or numerous pits. (ii) They are dead and without protoplasts. (iii) On the basis of variation in form, structure, origin and development, it may be either fibres or sclereids. (iv) It provides mechanical support to organs. (a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma (b) Collenchyma (d) Chlorenchyma 54. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? (i) Cork cambium is also called phellogen. (ii) Cork is also called phellem. (iii) Secondary cortex is also called periderm.

55.

(iv) Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called phelloderm. (a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ? (i) Epidermal cell has small amount of cytoplasm and a large vacuole. (ii) Waxy cuticle layer is absent in roots. (iii) Root hairs are unicellular, while stem hairs / trichomes are multicellular. (iv) Trichomes may be branched or unbranched, soft or stiff and prevent transpiration. (v) Guard cells are dumbell shaped in dicots and beanshaped in monocots (e.g. grass).

56.

57.

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (v) Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Lenticels occur in most woody trees. (b) Sclerenchymatous cells are usually present in cortex. (c) The vascular tissue system is divided into three main zones- cortex, pericycle and pith. (d) The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the xylem located only on the outer side of the phloem. Which of the following pair of match is not correct? (a) Pith - Large and well developed in monocotyledonous root. (b) Root hairs - Helps in preventing water loss due to transpiration (c) Sieve tube elements - Its functions are controlled by the nucleus of companion cells. (d) Stomatal apparatus - Consists of stomatal aperture, guard cells and surrounding subsidiary cells

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 64.

65.

66.

Reason: Cambium is made up of fusiform and ray initials in stem. 59.

Assertion : Higher plants have meristematic regions for indefinite growth. Reason : Higher plants have root and shoot apices.\

60.

Assertion : In woody stems, the amount of heart wood continues to increase year after year. Reason : The cambial activity continues uninterrupted.

61.

Assertion : Vessels are more efficient for water conduction as compared to tracheids.

62.

67.

Reason : Vessels are dead and lignified. Assertion: Bulliform cells are useful in the unrolling of leaf. Reason: Bulliform leaves store water.

63.

Assertion : Long distance flow of photoassimilates in plants occurs through sieve tubes. Reason : Mature sieve tubes have parietal cytoplasm and perforated sieve plates.

68.

Match the elements of xylem given in column I with their character given in the column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Xylem vessels I. Store food materials B. Xylem tracheids II. Obliterated lumen C. Xylem fibres III. Perforated plates D. Xylem parenchyma IV. Chisel-like ends (a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I (b) A – III, B – II,C – I, D – IV (c) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column -I Column -II A. Bulliform cells I. Initiation of lateral roots B. Pericycle II. Root C. Endarch xylem III. Grasses D. Exarch xylem IV. Dicot leaf E. Bundle sheath cells V. Stem (a) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – I, E – II (b) A – II, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – IV (c) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III, E – V (d) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – IV Match the terms given in column I with their funciton given in column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Term) (Functions) A. Meristem I. Photosynthesis, storage B. Parenchyma II. Mechanical support C. Collenchyma III. Actively dividing cells D. Sclerenchyma IV. Stomata E. Epidermal tissue V. Sclereids (a) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – II, E – IV (b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – IV (c) A – II, B – IV, C – V, D – I, E – III (d) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I Match the followings and choose the correct option Column-I Column-II A. Cuticle I. Guard cells B. Bulliform cells II. Outer layer C. Stomata III. Waxy layer D. Epidermis IV. Empty colourless cell (a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I (d) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV Match the names of the structures given in column-I with the functions given in column-II, choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the two columns :

EBD_7209

Biology

Anatomy of Flowering Plants Column-I (Structure) A. Stomata B. Bark C. Cambium D. Cuticle

69.

70.

71.

Column-II (Function) I. Protection of stem II. Plant movement III. Secondary growth IV. Transpiration V. Prevent the loss of water (a) A – V, B – III, C – I, D – IV (b) A – I, B – IV, C – V, D – III (c) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – V Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Spring wood or I. Lighter in colour early wood B. Autumn wood or II. High density late wood III. Low density IV. Darker in colour V. Larger number of xylem elements VI. Vessels with wider cavity VII. Lesser number of xylem elements VIII. Vessels with small cavity Which of the following combination is correct ? (a) A – II, IV, VII, VIII; B – I, III, V, VI (b) A – I, II, VII, VIII; B – III, IV, V, VI (c) A – I, III, V, VI; B – II, IV, VII, VIII (d) A – I, III, VII, VIII; B – II, IV, V, VI Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Stele I. Innermost layer of cortex B. Endodermis II. Suberin C. Casparian strips III. All the tissues exterior to vascular cambium D. Bark IV. All the tissues inner to endodermis (a) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (b) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV (c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (d) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III Match the terms given in column I with their features given in column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Terms) (Features) A. Fibres I. Cells are living and thin walled with cellulosic cell wall, store food materials in the form of starch or fat B. Sclereids II. Main water conductive cells of the pteridophytes and the gymnosperms C. Tracheids III. Thick walled, elongated

72.

and pointed cells, generally occurring in groups D. Vessels IV. Long cylindrical tube like structure and cells are devoid of protoplasm. Characteristic feature of angiosperms E. Xylem parenchyma V. Reduced form of sclerenchyma cells with highly thickened lignified cellular walls that form small bundles of durable layers of tissue in most plants. (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V (b) A – III, B – V, C – II, D – IV, E – I (c) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – IV (d) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – I, E – II In the given columns, column I contain structures of female reproductive system and column II contain its feature. Select the correct match. Column-I Column-II A. Lateral meristem I. Fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium. B. Apical meristem II. Produces dermal tissue, ground tissues and vascular tissue. C. Bast fibres III. Generally absent in primary phloem but found in secondary phloem. D. Sap wood IV. Involved in the conduction of water and minerals from the root to leaf. (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (c) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II (d) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 73.

The given figure shows apical meristem of root apex with few part marked as A, B and C. Identify the correct labelling of A, B and C.

74.

(a) A – Vascular structure, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap (b) A – Cortex, B – Endodermis, C – Root cap (c) A – Cortex, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap (d) A – Tunica, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap Identify A, B and C in the given figure of shoot apical meristem

76.

75.

(a) A – Leaf primordium, B – Shoot apical meristem, C – Axillary bud (b) A – Leaf primordium, B – Shoot apical meristem, C – Apical bud (c) A – Root hair primordium, B – Root apical meristem, C – Axillary bud (d) A – Root hair primordium, B – Root apical meristem, C – Terminal bud Identify the types of simple tissue indicated by A, B, C and D and their function.

(A)

77.

(a) A – Tracheid, B – Vessel, C – Xylem (b) A – Vessel, B – Tracheild, C – Phloem (c) A – Fibre, B – Tracheid, C – Bark (d) A – Fibre, B – Sclereid, C – Casparian strips In the given figure of phloem tissue, identify the marked part (A, B and C) which help in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.

(B)

78.

(C)

(a) A – Parenchyma, Photosynthesis, Storage and Secretion. (b) B – Sclerenchyma Scleriods; Transport food material (c) C – Collenchyma; Provides mechanical support to organs. (d) D – Sclerenchyma Fibres; Provide Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of a leaf. The given figures are types of elements (A and B) which constitute one type of complex tissue (c) of a plant . Identify A, B and C. A C B

(D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) None of the above The given diagrams show stomatal apparatus in dicots and monocots. Which one is correct option for A, B and C?

EBD_7209

Biology

Anatomy of Flowering Plants

79.

(a) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C – chloroplast (b) A – Guard cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C – Stomatal pore (c) A – Guard cells; B – Epidermal cells; C – Guard cells (d) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C – Guard cells Identify types of vascular bundles in given figures A, B and C.

81.

(a) A – Root hair, B – Epiblema, C – Cortex, D – Endodermis, E – Passage cell, F – Pericycle, G – Pith, H – Phloem, I – Metaxylem. (b) A – Root hair, B – Epiblema, C – Cortex, D – Endodermis, E – Passage cell, F – Pith, G – Pericycle, H – Metaxylem, I – Phloem. (c) A – Root hair, B – Epiblema, C – Cortex, D – Endodermis, E – Pericycle, F – Phloem, G – Protoxylem, I – Metaxylem (d) A – Root hair, B – Cortex, C – Epiblema, D – Pericycle, E – Endodermis, F – Pith, G – Phloem, H – Protoxylem, I – Metaxylem The given figure shows the T.S of dicot root. Some parts are marked as A, B, C, D, E, & F. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of marked part. E B A

(A) (B)

D F

(C)

(a)

Rad ial;

Co njo int clos ed; Con jo int op en

(b)

Con jo int clos ed;

Co njo int op en;

(c)

Con jo int op en;

Co njo int clos ed; Rad ial

(d)

Bico llateral;

Co ncen tric;

80.

Choose the correct labelling of (A – J) in the given figure of T.S. of monocot root.

Rad ial Rad ial

82.

(a) A – Epiblema, B – Root hair, C – Cortex, D – Endodermis, E – Pith, F – Pericycle (b) A – Cortex, B – Pith, C – Epiblema, D – Endodermis, E – Root hair, F – Pericycle (c) A – Epiblema, B – Endodermis, C – Cortex, D – Root hair, E – Pith, F – Pericycle (d) A – Cortex, B – Epiblema, C – Pith, D – Endodermis, E – Root hair, F – Pericycle T.S. of dicot stem is given below, certain parts have been marked by alphabets (A – I). Choose the option which shows their correct labelling. A

B C

C D

D E

F G

H I

(a) A – Epidermis, B – Epidermal hair, C – Parenchyma, D – Starch sheath, E – Hypodermis (collenchyma), F – Vascular bundle, G – Bundle cap, H – Medulla or pith, I – Medullary rays (b) A – Epidermal hair, B – Epidermis, C – Hypodermis (collenchyma), D – Parenchyma, E – Endoderm is (Starch Sheath), F – Pericycle, G – Vascular bundle, H – Medullary rays, I – Medulla or pith (c) A – Epidermal hair, B – Epidermis, C – Hypodermis (collenchyma), D – Starch sheath, E – Parenchyma, F – Vascular bundle, G – Bundle cap, H – Medulla or pith, I – Medullary rays (d) A – Epidermal hair, B – Epidermis, C – Parenchyma, D – Hypodermis (collenchyma), E – Starch sheath, F – Vascular bundle, G – Bundle cap, H – Medulla or pith, I – Medullary rays 83.

(a) A–Epidermis, B–Spongy mesophyll, C– Palisade mesophyll, D – Stomata, E– Guard cells, F–Phloem, G–Metaxylem, H–Protoxylem (b) A–Epidermis, B–Palisade mesophyll, C– Spongy mesophyll, D–Sub-stomatal cavity, E–Stoma, F–Phloem, G– Xylem, H– Bundle sheath

The given figure shows T.S. of monocot stem. Identify the correct labelling of A to F marked in the given figure.

(c) A – Epidermis, B – Palisade mesophyll, C–Spongy mesophyll, D–Stomata, E– Guard cells, F–Epidermis, G– Xylem, H–Phloem

85.

(d) A–Epidermis, C–Palisade mesophyll, C–Spongy mesophyll, D– Stomata, E– Guard cells, F–Phloem, G– Metaxylem, H– Protoxylem T.S. of monocot leaf is given below, certain parts have been marked by alphabets (A – G). Which one is the option showing there correct labelling? A B C D

(a) A – Epidermis, B – Hypodermis, C – Vascular bundles, D – Phloem, E – Xylem, F – Ground tissue (b) A – Cuticle, B – Epidermis, C – Sclerenchymatous sheath, D – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, E – Parenchymatous sheath, F – Phloem (c) A – Cuticle, B – Epidermis, C – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, D – Sclerenchymatous sheath, E – Parenchymatous sheath, F – Phloem

84.

(a)

(b)

(d) A – Cuticle, B – Epidermis, C – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, D – Sclerenchymatous sheath, E – Parenchymatous sheath, F – Protoxylem

(c)

T.S. of dicot leaf passing through the midrib is given below. Certain parts have been marked by alphabets (A to H). Choose the option showing their correct labelling.

(d)

F G A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Xylem, C – Mesophyll, D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Abaxial epidermis, F – Stoma, G – Phloem A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Abaxial epidermis, C – Xylem, D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Stoma, F – Mesophyll, G – Phloem A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Phloem, C – Mesophyll, D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Abaxial epidermis, F – Xylem, G – Stoma A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Xylem, C – Stoma, D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Abaxial epidermis, F – Phloem, G – Mesophyll

EBD_7209

Biology

Anatomy of Flowering Plants 86.

The given figure shows the secondary growth in a dicot stem. Their parts are marked as A, B, C, D, E & F. Choose the correct labelling of the parts marked as A to F.

88.

Which one of the following option shows the correct labelling of the parts marked as A, B, C and D in the given figure of a typical dicot root?

A B

C D E

(a) A – Primary phloem, B – Vascular cambium, C – Secondary phloem, D – Primary xylem

87.

(a) A – Phellem, B – Phellogen, C – Medullary rays, D – Secondary xylem, E – Secondary phloem, F – Cambium ring (b) A – Phellem, B – Phellogen, C – Medullary rays, D – Secondary phloem, E – Secondary xylem, F – Cambium ring (c) A – Phellogen, B – Phellem, C – Medullary rays, D – Secondary xylem, E – Secondary phloem, F – Cambium ring (d) A – Phellem, B – Phellogen, C – Cambium ring, D – Secondary xylem, E – Secondary phloem, F – Medullary rays Which one of the followings option shows the correct labelling of the parts marked as A, B, C and D in the given figure of a lenticel?

(b) A – Secondary phloem, B – Vascular cambium, C – Primary phloem, D – Primary xylem (c) A – Primary phloem, B – Primary xylem, C – Secondary phloem, D – Vascular cambium (d) A – Secondary phloem, B – Primary xylem, C – Primary phloem, D – Vascular cambium 89.

Which of the following figure is a type of permanent tissue having many different types of cell?

(a)

Irregularly Thickened Primary Cell Wall Collenchyma

(a) A – Epidermis, B – Secondary cortex, C – Cork cambium, D – Cork (b) A – Pore, B – Cork cambium, C – Secondary cortex, D – Cork (c) A – Pore, B – Cork, C – Complimentary cells, D – Cork cambium (d) A – Epidermis, B – Complimentary cells, C – Cork cambium, D – Secondary cortex

(b)

Sclerenchyma Tissue

perforation plate

Trachea types by cell wall thickening

annular spiral reticulate

(d)

Parenchyma

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

Trees at sea do not have annual rings because (a) soil is sandy. (b) there is climatic variation. (c) there is no marked climatic variation. (d) there is enough moisture in the atmosphere. One of the primary function of the ground tissue in a plant is (a) photosynthesis. (b) to protect the plant. (c) to anchor the plant. (d) water and sugar conduction. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove (a) periderm (b) epidermis (c) cuticle (d) leaves Why grafting is successful in dicots ? (a) In dicots vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. (b) Dicots have cambium for secondary growth. (c) In dicots vessels with elements are arranged end to end. (d) Cork cambium is present in dicots The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of (a) size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode (b) intercalary meristem (c) shoot apical meristem (d) position of axillary buds

95.

As secondary growth proceeds, in a dicot stem, the thickness of (a) sapwood increases. (b) heartwood increase. (c) both sapwood and heartwood increases. (d) both sapwood and heartwood remains the same. 96. The trees growing in desert will (a) show alternate rings of xylem and sclerenchyma. (b) have only conjunctive tissue and phloem is formed by the activity of cambium. (c) show distinct annual rings. (d) not show distinct annual rings. 97. Some vascular bundles are described as open because these (a) are surrounded by pericycle but not endodermis. (b) are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem. (c) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem. (d) are not surrounded by pericycle. 98. Apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems because (a) they occur in the mature region of roots and shoots of many plants. (b) they made up of different kinds of tissues. (c) they involved in secondary growth. (d) they appear early in life of a plant and contribute to the formation of the primary plant body. 99. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food because they possess (a) bordered pits. (b) no ends walls. (c) broader lumen and perforated cross walls. (d) no protoplasm. 100. A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea) must be belonged to (a) teak (b) mango (c) pine (d) palm 101. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having (a) cytoskeleton. (b) mitochondria. (c) endoplasmic reticulum. (d) chloroplasts. 102. Cambium is considered as a lateral meristem because (a) it gives rise to lateral branches. (b) it causes increase in girth. (c) it increases height and diameter of a plant. (d) it adds bulk to a plant.

EBD_7209

Biology

Anatomy of Flowering Plants 103. Tissue(s) present in an annual ring is/are (a) secondary xylem and phloem. (b) primary xylem and phloem. (c) secondary xylem only. (d) primary phloem and secondary xylem. 104. The vessel elements of angiosperms differ from other elements of xylem in having (a) simple pits on their radial walls. (b) bordered pits on their lateral walls. (c) simple and bordered pits on their end walls. (d) simple perforation on their end walls. 105. Which of the following are present in monocot root ? (a) conjoint, collateral, open polyarch vascular bundle. (b) exodermis, endarch, tetrarch closed vascular bundles. (c) suberized exodermis, casparian strip, passage cells, cambium. (d) suberized exodermis, polyarch xylem, pith. 106. Tissues are classified into two main groups, namely meristematic and permanent tissues on the basis of (a) whether the cells being able to divide or not. (b) position of the cells. (c) whether they are living or dead. (d) none of the above 107. A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements are (a) pores on lateral walls. (b) presence of p-protein. (c) enucleate condition. (d) thick secondary walls. 108. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack (a) cambium (b) phloem fibres (c) thick-walled tracheids (d) xylem fibres

109. A student was given a tissue to observe under the microscope. He observes the tissue and concludes that the tissue is a type of simple plant tissue and provides mechanical support to young stem and petiole of leaf. Identify the tissue. (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Xylem parenchyma 110. In an experiment, a student cut a transverse section of young stem of a plant which he has taken from his school garden. After observing it under the microscope how would he ascertain whether it is a monocot stem or a dicot stem? (a) With the help of bulliform cells. (b) With the help of casparian strips. (c) With the help of vascular bundles. (d) With the help of stomatal apparatus. 111. Which of the following process helps the trichomes in preventing water loss? (a) Where companion cells helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes. (b) Where plants absorb water through the roots and then give off water vapor through pores in their leaves. (c) Where activity of cork cambium builds pressure on the remaining layers peripheral to phellogen and ultimately these layers dies and slough off. (d) None of the above

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is (a) cuboidal epithelium (b) columnar epithelium (c) ciliated columnar epithelium (d) squamous epithelium The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans occur in (a) Eustachian tube and stomach lining (b) bronchioles and fallopian tubes (c) bile duct and oesophagus (d) fallopian tubes and urethra Mast cells are associated with (a) exocrine glands (b) endocrine glands (c) areolar connective tissue (d) neural tissue Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective tissue, muscular, or nervous tissue by its (a) large extracellular matrix. (b) contractibility. (c) ability to carry action potentials. (d) basement membrane. Compound squamous epithelium is found in (a) stomach (b) intestine (c) trachea (d) pharynx General function of gland is to (a) protect the body. (b) control the function of epithelial tissues. (c) produce and secrete specialized compounds to control and maintain different body functions. (d) help to maintain blood pressure and nerve actions. Which of the following type of cell junction is not found in animal tissues ? (a) Adhering junction (b) Tight junction (c) Gap junction (d) Plasmodesmata The only type of cell seen in a tendon is (a) muscle fibres (b) reticular cells (c) collagenous cells (d) fibroblasts

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

Chapter

Structural Organisation in Animals

The chondrocytes of connective tissue are (a) fibre secreting cells (b) bone forming cells (c) cartilage cells (d) bone eating cells The shape of a person’s ear is mainly due to (a) dense regular connective tissue (b) dense irregular connective tissue (c) elastic cartilage (d) fibrocartilage Tendons and ligaments are the examples of (a) areolar connective tissue (b) adipose tissue (c) dense regular connective tissue (d) loose connective tissue Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means they (a) are responsible for the production and secretion of enzymes. (b) are specialized in contraction and relaxation. (c) help in the movement of involuntary organs only. (d) all of the above In all connective tissues, except which of the following, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin protein ? (a) Bone (b) Cartilage (c) Areolar connective tissue (d) Fluid connective tissue Three essential components of most neurons are (a) simple epithelium, extracellular matrix and nerves. (b) axon, dendrites and cell body. (c) nerve cells, synapse and neuroglia. (d) mylein sheeth, node of Ranvier and Schwann cells. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of (a) ligament (b) areolar tissue (c) bone (d) cartilage The fibres of which of the following muscles are fusiform and do not show striations (a) Skeletal muscles (b) Cardiac muscles (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Smooth muscles

Structural Organisation in Animals 17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

Intercalated discs are the communication junctions between the cells of (a) cardiac muscles (b) striped muscles (c) adipose tissue (d) nerve and striated muscles Smooth muscles are______. (a) voluntary, branched, uninucleate (b) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical (c) involuntary, cylindrical, multinucleate (d) involuntary, spindle shaped, uninucleated, tapering Neuroglia are (a) excitable cells of neural tissue. (b) supporting and non-excitable cells of neural tissue. (c) two to three times in volume of neural tissue. (d) protective and excitable cells of neural tissue. Which one of the following pairs of str uctures distinguishe a nerve cell from other types of cell ? (a) Vacuoles and Fibres (b) Flagellum and Medullary sheath (c) Nucleus and Mitochondria (d) Cell body and Dendrites Spermathecae in Pheretima is located in the segments: (a) 14 to 18 (b) 10 to 13 (c) 6 to 10 (d) 6 to 9 In earthworms setae are present in all segments except (a) first and the last segments (b) first segment and the clitellum (c) first segment (d) clitellum and last segments About how many times does the nymph of the Periplaneta americana undergo moulting before becoming an adult? (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 17 (d) 13 Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that are included in class _______ of phylum _______. (a) reptilia; annelida (b) insecta; arthropoda (c) insecta; annelida (d) reptilia; arthropoda Male cockroach can be identified from the female by the presence of (a) long antennae (b) wingless body (c) elongated abdomen (d) anal styles In cockroach, the testes are present in (a) 3, 4, 5 abdominal segments (b) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments (c) 5, 6, 7 abdominal segments (d) 6, 7, 8 abdominal segments The mouth parts of cockroach are (a) cutting and biting type. (b) piercing and sucking type. (c) sucking and rasping type. (d) sucking and siphoning type.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

Phallic organs in cockroach are related to (a) male excretory system. (b) male reproductive system. (c) female excretory system. (d) female reproductive system. Gizzard (proventriculus) in cockroach lies between (a) oesophagus and stomach (b) crop and mesenteron (c) mesenteron and ileum (d) oesophagus and crop A frog never drinks water but absorbs it through one of its respiratory organ. Identify the organ. (a) Skin (b) Lung (c) Buccal cavity (d) None of the above. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of frog? (a) The skin is moist and slimy (b) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five digits (c) Hepatic portal and renal portal systems are present (d) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the respiratory organs The sensory papillae in frogs are associated with (a) smell (b) hearing (c) respiration (d) touch

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 33.

34.

35.

Which statement regarding anal cerci and anal style in cockroach is correct? (a) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are present in male. (b) Anal cerci are absent and anal styles are present in female. (c) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in male. (d) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in female. Select the correct statement regarding Periplaneta americana (a) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut. (b) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts. (c) Nervous system is located ventrally and consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives. (d) Females bear a pair of short thread like anal styles. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding cuboidal epithelium ? (a) It is an epithelial tissue. (b) It is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells. (c) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs. (d) Secretion and absorption are the main functions of these tissue.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding compound epithelium ? (a) It is made of more than one layer of cells and thus has a limited role in secretion and absorption. (b) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses. (c) They cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about muscle tissue ? (a) Each muscle is made of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. (b) Muscle fibres contract (shorten) in response to stimulation, then relax (lengthen) and return to their uncontracted state in a coordinated fashion. (c) Muscles play an active role in all movements of the body. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is not correct regarding neural tissue ? (a) It exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions. (b) Chondrocytes, the unit of neural system are excitable cells. (c) Neuroglial cells protect and support neurons. (d) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Female reproductive system of earthworm ? (a) It consists of two large ovaries, lying laterally in the 6th – 7th abdominal segments. (b) Each ovary is formed of a group of five ovarian tubules or ovar ioles, containing a chain of developing ova. (c) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 5th segment which opens into the genital chamber. (d) None of the above Which of the following statement(s) regarding cell junctions is/are correct ? (a) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. (b) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. (c) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules. (d) All of the above Consider the following statements regarding cockroach and mark the correct option.

42.

43.

44.

45.

(i) Head is formed by the fusion of 6-segments. (ii) Mouth parts are biting and chewing type. (iii) Crop is the part of mid gut. (a) Only (ii) is correct (b) (ii) and (iii) are correct (c) (i) and (ii) are correct (d) Only (iii) is correct Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) It is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. (ii) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs. (iii) They are involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary. Which of the following characteristics of tissue is being described by the above statements ? (a) Squamous epithelium (b) Columnar epithelium (c) Ciliated epithelium (d) Compound epithelium Which of the following type of tissue is being described by the given statements ? (i) They are named because of their special function of linking and supporting other tissues/organs of the body. (ii) They include cartilage, bone, adipose and blood. (iii) They provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue. (iv) They also secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells and fibres and act as matrix. (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue (c) Muscle tissue (d) Neural tissue Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ? (i) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells. (ii) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin. (iii) Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense irregular connective tissue. (iv) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of specialized connective tissue. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iv) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) Read the following statements and answer the question. (i) They have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres. (ii) They support and protect softer tissues and organs. (iii) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae. (iv) They also interact with skeletal muscles attached to them to bring about movements. Which of the following type of tissue is being described by above statements ? (a) Cartilage (b) Bone (c) Blood (d) Neurons

EBD_7209

Biology

Structural Organisation in Animals 46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

Which of the following type of muscle tissue is being described on the basis of given statements ? (i) These muscle fibres taper at both ends and do not show striations. (ii) The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine contain this type of muscle tissue. (iii) They are ‘involuntary’ as their function cannot be directly controlled. (a) Skeletal muscle (b) Smooth muscle (c) Cardiac muscle (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about nervous system of cockroach ? (i) It consists of a series of fused segmentally arranged ganglia joined by paired longitudinal connectives on the ventral side. (ii) There are six ganglia lie in the thorax, and three in the abdomen. (iii) The sense organs are antennae, eyes, maxillary pulps, labial pulps and anal cerci etc. (iv) Each eye consists of about 5000 hexagonal ommatidia. (a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding respiratory system of cockroach ? (i) It consists of a network of trachea, that open through 12 pairs of small holes called spiracles present on the lateral side of the body. (ii) Thin branching tubes carry oxygen from the air to all the parts. (iii) The opening of the spiracles is regulated by sphincters. (iv) Exchange of gases take place at the tracheoles by diffusion. (a) Only (i) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding digestive system of cockroach ? (i) Mouth opens into a short tubular pharynx, leading to a narrow tubular passage called oesophagus. (ii) Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles. (iii) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caecae is present at the junction of foregut and midgut, which secrete digestive juice. (iv) At the junction of midgut and hindgut is present another ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin filamentous malphigian tubules which help in removal of excretory products from haemolymph. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding excretory system of cockroach ? (i) Excretion is performed by malphigian tubules.

51.

52.

53.

54.

(ii) They absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out th rough hindgut. Hence, th is insect called ammonetelic. (iii) In addition, fat body, nephrocytes and uricose glands also help in excretion. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding cockroaches ? (i) The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible into three distinct regions – head, thorax and abdomen. (ii) Blood vascular system is of closed type. (iii) They are monoecious and both sexes have well developed reproductive organs. (iv) The development of P. americana is paurometabolus, meaning there is development through nymphal stage. (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these Read the following statements. (i) It is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. (ii) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of these cells and make them stick together. (iii) Communication juntions at some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit, i.e., when one cell receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated to contract. Which of the following type of tissue is being described by the above statements ? (a) Skeletal muscle (b) Cardiac muscle (c) Smooth muscle (d) Cartilage Which of the follwing statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that are included in class insecta of phylum arthropoda. (ii) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females. (iii) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen. (iv) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) All of the above Which of the following statements regarding frog is not correct? (a) Fertilization is external and takes place in water. (b) External ear and tympanum can be seen externally. (c) In females the ureters and oviduct open separately in the cloaca. (d) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs and vocal sac are present in male frog.

ASSERTION/REASON QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 55. Assertion: Typhlosole increases the effective area of absorption in the intestine. Reason: Typhlosole, present in the intestine, is the characteristic feature of cockroach. 56. Assertion : The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. Reason : They are found in walls of blood vessels and air sacs of wings. 57. Assertion : Connective tissues are most aboundant and help in linking and supporting other tissues organ of the body. Reason : In all connective tissues except blood the cells secrete collagen or elastin. 58. Assertion : Basophils cells secrete histamine. Reason : Histamine is a vasoconstrictor. 59. Assertion : Numerous minute pores called nephridio pores open on the surface of the body of earthworm. Reason : In each body segment, there are rows of S-Shaped setae present. 60. Assertion: In cockroaches the development is paurometabolous. Reason : Nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form. 61. Assertion : Intercalated discs are important regions of cardiac muscle cells. Reason : Intercalated discs function as boosters for muscle contraction waves. 62. Assertion : Cartilage (protein matrix) and bone (calcium matrix) are rigid connective tissue. Reason : Blood is connective tissue in which plasma is the matrix.

64.

65.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 63.

Match the epithetial tissue given in column-I with its location given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II (Epithelial tissue) (Location) A. Cuboidal I. Epidermis of skin B. Ciliated II. Inner lining of blood vessels C. Columnar III. Inner surface of gall bladder D. Squamous IV. Inner lining of fallopian tube E. Keratinized V. Lining of pancreatic duct squamous

66.

(a) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – III; E – I (b) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I (c) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I (d) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II Match column-I (type of epithelium) with column-II (Description) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Types of epithelium) (Description) A. Squamous I. It is composed of a epithelium single-layer of cube-like cells B. Cuboidal II. Having cilia on their free epithelium surface C. Columnar III. It is composed of a single epithelium layer of tall and slender cells D. Ciliated IV. It is made up of a single thin epithelium layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries (a) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II Match the types of connective tissue given in column-I with their examples given column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Types of connective) (Examples) A. Loose connective I. Tendons and ligaments tissue B. Dense regular II. Skin tissue C. Dense irregular III. Cartilage, bones, blood tissue D. Specialized IV. Fibroblasts, macrophages connective tissue and mast cells (a) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III Match the terms given in column-I with their feature given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Terms) (Features) A. Exocrine gland I. They help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue B. Endocrine gland II. Hormones are secreted directly into the fluid bathing the gland C. Tight junctions III. They perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

EBD_7209

Biology

Structural Organisation in Animals D.

67.

68.

69.

70.

Adhering junctions IV. Secretes mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes and other cell products (a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Periplaneta I. Hepatic caecae americana B. A ring of 6-8 blind II. Phylum arthropoda tubules C. Vascular system III. Spiracles D. 10 pairs of small IV. Malpighian tubules holes E. Excretion V. Open type (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – II; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – IV (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV (d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I Find the incorrectly matched pair. (a) Unicellular glandular cells - Goblet cell (b) Saliva - Exocrine secretion (c) Fusiform fibres - Smooth muscle (d) Cartilage - Areolar tissue Which of the following types of connective tissue is mismatched with its matrix ? (a) Areolar – Loosely packed matrix of protein fibres (b) Bone – Mineralized matrix (c) Cartilage – Highly vascular matrix (d) Blood – Liquid matrix Match the description given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II (Description) (Example) A. Aquatic respiratory I. Skin organ B. Organ which acts II. Ureter urogenital duct and opens into the cloaca C. A small median chamber III. Cloaca that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperms to the exterior D. A triangular structure IV. Sinus venosus which joins the right atrium and receives blood through vena cava (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 71.

The diagram given below represents the reproductive organ of male cockroach. Choose the correct labelling of the part of marked as A, B, C and D.

A B

72.

(a) A – 8th sternum, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th tergum, D - Anal style (b) A - 10th tergum, B - Anal cercus, C - Anal style, D - 8th sternum (c) A - Anal style, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th tergum, D- 8th sternum (d) A - Anal cercus, B - 8th sternum, C - 10th tergum, D - Anal style. In the given diagram of areolar connective tissue, the different cells and parts have been marked by alphabets (A, B, C & D). Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts and cells they indicate. Matrix A B C

73.

(a) A-Adipocyte, B-Collagen fibres, C-Microfilament, D-Mast cells (b) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres, C-Microfilament, D-Mast cells (c) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres, C-Microtubule, D-RBC (d) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast, C-Collagen fibres, D-Mast cells Identify figures-I and II.

Collagen Fibre

Fibroblast

Matrix

Fibroblast Fig-I

Matrix Fig-II

74.

Figure I Figure II (a) Dense regular Dense irregular connective tissue, connective tissue (b) Loose irregular Loose regular connective tissue, connective tissue (c) Adipose tissue, Specialized connective tissue (d) Connective tissue Areolar tissue proper The intercellular material of the given figure is solid and resists compression. Identify the figure and the label marked as A & B.

76.

B D C E

(a) (b) (c) (d)

75.

Fig. Cartilage Cartilage Bone Bone

A Collagen Collagen Microtubule Collagen fibres

77. B Chondrocyte Chondroclast Chondroclast Osteoblast

Antennae

Fig

The figure given below shows the head region of cockroach. Identify A to F.

(a) A- Compound eye, B-Ocellus, C-Maxilla, DMandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium (b) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, DMaxilla, E-Labrum, F-Labium (c) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, DMaxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum (d) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, DMandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium The given figure shows the digestive system of cockroach with few structures marked as A, B, C and D.

The following figure shows the extarnal features of cockroach with few structures labelled as A, B, C, D, and E.

Identify A to E . (a) A- Mesothorax, B-Pronotum, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style (b) A- Pronotum, B-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Sterna (c) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci (d) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style

C-Metathorax, C-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, C-Metathorax,

Identify structures A to D. (a) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Hepatic caecae, D-Malpighian tubules (b) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caecae, D-Malpighian tubules (c) A- Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic caecae (d) A- Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic caecae

EBD_7209

Biology

Structural Organisation in Animals 78. The given figure shows open circulatory system of cockroach with structure marked as A, B and C. Which structure is a 13 pair of wing shaped involuntary muscles and mantain blood circulation?

81.

The following figures A, B and C are types of muscle tissue. Identify A, B and C.

(A)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Both A nad B 79. Figure given below shows reproductive system of female cockroach. The correct labellings indicated by alphabets (A, B & C) are respectively

82.

(B)

(C)

(a) A – Smooth muscle, B – Cardiac muscle, C – Skeletal muscle (b) A – Skeletal muscle, B – Smooth muscle, C – Cardiac muscle (c) A – Cardiac muscle, B – Smooth muscle, C – Skeletal muscle (d) A – Smooth muscle, B –Skeletal muscle , C – Cardiac muscle The given figure shows the nephridial system of earthworm and answer the question.

(a) A-Spermatheca, B-Collaterial glands, C-Gonapophyses (b) A-Phallic gland, B-Collaterial glands, C-Gonapophyses (c) A-Spermatheca, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Gonapophyses (d) A-Spermatheca, B-Collateral glands, C-Tegmina 80. Identify the figure with its correct function 83.

Select the option which shows the correct identification and the function of the structure marked as "X". (a) Lateral heart. It is a blood pumping organ. (b) Calciferous glands. They neutralize the humic acid present in humus. (c) Nephridia. It regulates the volume and composition of the body fluids. (d) Blood glands. They produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma. The figure given below shows the alimentary canal of cockroach with few structures labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Identify the correct identification of the structure which is also called proventriculus and helps in grinding the food particles.

1 2 3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Fig :. Adipose connective tissue Areolar connective tissue – Serves as a support framework for epithelium. Adipose tissue – Store fats and act as heat insulators. Dense regular tissue – Provide flexibility. Dense irregular tissue – Provide strength and elasticity.

(a) 1 (c) 3

(b) 2 (d) 4

84.

Refer th e given figure and identify the correct characteristic feature.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 87.

85.

(i) It is a type of loose connective tissue. (ii) It contains fibroblast, macrophages, collagen fibres and mast cells. (iii) The cells of this tissue are specialized to store fats. (iv) The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine contains this type of tissue. (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (i) & (iii) (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv) A student was given a sample of two tissues. He observes the tissues under the microscope and draws their figures (1 and 2) as shown below.

88.

89.

90.

86.

Identify the tissues (1 and 2). (a) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; 2: Unicellular glandular epithelium (b) 1: Cuboidal cells bearing cilia; 2: Multicellular glandular epithelium (c) 1: Compound cells bearing cilia; 2: Unicellular glandular epithelium (d) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; 2: Multicellular glandular epithelium Refer the given figure of female reproductive system of cockroach and identify the correct labels (marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4) which are collectively called genital pouch.

91.

92.

93.

Ovary 1 Common oviduct or vagina 2

Spermatheca

3 4

gonapophyses

(a) 1 & 2 (c) 2 & 4

(b) 1 & 3 (d) 3 & 4

94.

The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that (a) cockroach does not respire. (b) respiration is anaerobic. (c) oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion. (d) oxygen goes directly into tissues by intracellular capillary system. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still be alive for as long as one week. Their is because of (a) the body which is covered with hard chitinous exoskeleton. (b) head which holds a bit of nervous system. (c) head which is of no use. (d) food capturing appratus which is found elsewhere. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken? (a) No movements at joints. (b) Bones will become fixed. (c) Bones will become unfixed. (d) Bone will move freely at joints. Four healthy people in their twenties faced injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells given below. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells? (a) Liver cells (b) Neurons (c) Malpighian layer of the skin (d) Osteocytes In cockroach head can move in all directions due to (a) absence of neck. (b) fusion of all 6 segments of head. (c) flexible neck. (d) head is small and light weight. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph? (a) Development of anal cerci. (b) Development of both forewings and hind wings. (c) Development labium. (d) Mandibles become harder. Choose the correct sequence of alimentary canal of Cockroach (a) Gizzard ® Crop ® Malphigian tubules ® Hepatic caeca ® Rectum. (b) Gizzard ® Hepatic caeca ® Crop ® Rectum ® Malphigian tubules. (c) Crop ® Gizzard ® Hepatic caeca ® Malphigian tubules ® Rectum. (d) Crop ® Hepatic caeca ® Gizzard ® Rectum ® Malphigian tubules. Lack of blood supply and presence of the noncellular basement membrane are the characteristics of the (a) muscular tissue (b) fluid connective tissue (c) epithelial tissue (d) nervous tissue

EBD_7209

Biology

Structural Organisation in Animals 95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103

The secretions of endocrine glands are released directly (a) into the skin surface (b) into the blood stream (c) into a gland duct (d) into the brain tissue Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because (a) cartilage cells cannot reproduce. (b) they lack direct blood supplies. (c) the intercellular material is missing. (d) cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids. When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by (a) connective tissue cells (b) new smooth muscle cells (c) new cardiac muscle cells (d) epithelial cells Which of the following vertebrate tissues would be an excellent source of collagen? (a) Liver (b) Nerve (c) Muscle (d) Tendon Which of the following is involved in the production of new blood cells ? (a) Adipose cell (b) Bone marrow (c) Liver (d) Matrix The major functions of loose connective tissue include (a) occupying spaces between organs and supporting epithelia. (b) supporting and surrounding blood vessels and nerves (c) cushioning organs, storing lipids and facilitating diffusion. (d) All of the above Nervous tissue cells that play several supporting roles but do not transmit impulses are called (a) glial cells (b) dendrites (c) nerve cells (d) neurons Hair present in the skin are (a) epidermal in origin and made of dead cells. (b) epidermal in origin and made of living cells. (c) dermal in origin and made of living cells. (d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells. In which one of the following preparations, cell junctions come across most frequently ? (a) Ligament (b) Tendon (c) Cartilage (d) Ciliated epithelium

104. Non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium often contains _______, which increase the surface area for secretion and absorption. (a) flagella (b) collagen fibres (c) microvilli (d) all of these 105. What are the three basic components of connective tissues? (a) Ground substance, cells and basement membrane (b) Cartilage, intercellular matrix and serum (c) Cells, protein fibers and ground substance (d) Collagen, elastin and reticular fibers 106. A student was given a sample of tissue. He observes and concludes the following characters. (i) The cells are composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells. (ii) Their nuclei are located at the base. (iii) Free surface may have microvilli. (iv) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine (v) They help in secretion and absorption. Based on the above features identify the epithelium. (a) Cuboidal epithelium (b) Columnar Epithelium (c) Squamous epithelium (d) Glandular epithelium 107. Which of the following animal's sensory system does not has eyes but does possess light and touch sensitive organs (receptor cells) to distinguish the light intensities and to feel the vibrations in the ground? (a) Frog (b) Snake (c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach 108. A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of the characteristics given below. (i) They are metamerically segmented. (ii) Presence of closed circulatory system. (iii) They have circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion. Identify the specimen. (a) Frog (b) Pheretima (c) Cockroach (d) Rabbit 109. Which of the following animals maintain ecological balance? (a) Frog (b) Rabbit (c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Who proposed the theory that "Cells arise only from the pre-existing cells"? (a) Mohl (b) Virchow (c) Haeckel (d) Brown 2. An organalle devoid of membrane covering is (a) vacuole (b) ribosome (c) peroxisome (d) lysosome 3. Difference between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells in having (a) cell wall (b) nuclear membrane (c) ribosome (d) none of these 4. Membranous extensions in blue green algae are known as (a) phytochrome (b) chromatophore (c) mesosome (d) pneumatophore 5. Extension of plasma membrane in prokaryotic cell is (a) mesosome (b) haploid (c) ribosome (d) none of these 6. Polysome is a chain of (a) oxysomes (b) sphaerosomes (c) ribosomes (d) dictyosomes 7. Integral proteins of cell membrane occur on/in (a) inner surfaces (b) outer surfaces (c) phospholipid matrix (d) inner and outer surfaces 8. Active transport across biomembrane involves (a) production of ATP (b) requirement of energy (c) production of toxin (d) release of energy 9. The membrane of the erythrocytes has approximately ___% of proteins and ___% lipids. (a) 42, 50 (b) 52, 40 (c) 50, 50 (d) 60, 40 10. The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of __________. (a) polysaccharides (b) phosphoglyceride (c) monosaccharaides (d) both (a) and (c)

Chapter

Cell : The Unit of Life

11.

The best material for study of structure of cell membrane is (a) RBC of human (b) RBC of frog (c) cheek cell of human (d) liver cell of rat 12. In which of the following the cells are held together by a Ca-pectate layer? (a) Primary cell wall (b) Secondary cell wall (c) Middle lamella (d) Tertiary cell wall 13. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

(a) Plasmodesmata (b) Plastoquinones (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Plasmalemma Which of the following will determines the shape of the cells and provides a strong structural support to prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing? (a) Plasmids (b) Cell wall (c) Mesosome (d) Cell membrane Which one of the following is not considered as part of the endomembrane system? (a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome (c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome Function of RER is (a) autolysis (b) protein synthesis (c) lipid synthesis d) carbohydrate synthesis Which of the following cell organelles were discovered after the introduction of electron microscope? (a) Mitochondria (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Ribosomes (d) Both (b) and (c) _______________ is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and golycolipids. (a) SER (b) Lysosome (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Mitochondria

Cell : The Unit of Life 19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Golgi apparatus is concerned with (a) excretion (b) secretion (c) ATP synthesis (d) RNA synthesis Lysosomes contain (a) carbohydrates (b) hormones (c) nucleic acids (d) hydrolases. Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is (a) excretion and osmoregulation. (b) digestion and respiration. (c) osmoregulation and transportation. (d) none of the above. Both the membranes of mitochondrion are (a) structurally different but functionally similar. (b) structurally as well as functionally different. (c) structurally similar but functionally different. (d) structurally different but functionally similar. Plastids are found in (a) all animal cells. (b) some animal cells. (c) all plant cells. (d) all plant cells and euglenoides. Plastids storing fat are called (a) Elaioplasts (b) Sphaerosomes (c) Aleuroplasts (d) Pyrenoids Grana are (a) protein storing plastids. (b) coloured plastids. (c) stacks of thylakoids. (d) individual thylakoids present in stroma. A component of cytoskeleton is (a) microtubule (b) bone (c) chitin (d) cartilage. The cytoskeleton is a proteinaceous network of fibres in the cytoplasm. It is involved in (a) mechanical support. (b) motility. (c) maintenace of cell-shape. (d) all of these Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in (a) cilia (b) flagella (c) both (a) and (b) (d) centriole Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in the (a) type of movement and placement. (b) location and mode of functioning. (c) microtubular structure and function. (d) microtubular organization and type of movement. Basal bodies are associated with the formation of (a) phragmoplast (b) cilia and flagella (c) cell plate (d) kinetochore

31.

Centrioles and centrosomes occur in the cells of (a) green plants (b) animals (c) bacteria and cyanobacteria (d) both (b) and (c) 32. Nucleolus is (a) rounded structure found in cytoplasm near nucleus. (b) rounded structure inside nucleus and having rRNA. (c) rod-shaped structure in cytoplasm near the nucleus. (d) none of the above. 33. Satellite means (a) terminal part of the chromosome beyond secondary constriction. (b) terminal part of the chromosome beyond primary constriction. (c) terminal part of chromosome beyond tertiary constriction. (d) none of the above 34. Chromosomes having equal or almost equal arms are called (a) metacentric (b) acrocentric (c) polycentric (d) acentric.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 35. Which of the following statement is correct regarding vacuole? (a) It is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids. (b) It is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances. (c) It lacks membrane and contains air. (d) It lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances. 36. Which of the following statement of a bacterial cell is/ are correct? (i) Mesosome is formed by the extensions of plasma membrane into the cell. (ii) The pili are elongated tubular structures made up of a protein. (iii) Flagellum is composed of filament, hook and basal body. (iv) Ribosomes are about 30 nm by 50 nm in size. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) All of the above (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) None of the above 37. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs (a) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria. (b) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm. (c) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclears envelope and endoplasmic reticulum. (d) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer. (b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer. (c) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membrane. (d) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are (a) specialized granules responsible for colouration of cells. (b) structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism. (c) inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities. (d) internal membrane system which becomes extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria. Which of the following statement is false? (a) The ribosomes of a polysome translate the mRNA into protein. (b) Mitochondria divide by fragmentation. (c) All cell arise from pre-existing cells. (d) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of phosphoglycerides. Which of the following is incorrect ? (a) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 µ). (b) Bacteria are 3 to 5 µm in size. (c) The largest cell is the egg of an ostrich. (d) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells. Select the incorrect statement about prokaryotic ribosomes. (a) 50S and 30S subunits unite to form 70S ribosomes. (b) Polysome/polyribosome consists of many ribosomes only. (c) Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis. (d) Polysome indicate the synthesis of identical poolypeptide in multiple copies. Select the statements which are related to Schwann. (i) He reported that cells have a thin outer layer which is today known as plasma membrane (ii) Cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell. (iii) Body of plants and animals are composed of cells and products of cells. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) The shape of the cells may vary with the function they perform.

(ii) Human RBC is about 7.0 mm in diameter. (iii) Cytoplasm is the main area of cellular activities. (iv) Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) Only (i) and (ii) (c) Only (iv) (d) None of the above 45. Study the following statements on cilium or flagellum and answer the question. (i) Cilium / Flagellum contains an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet microtubules. (ii) Cilia are smaller which work like oars, causing the movement of either the cells or surrounding fluid. (iii) Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible for cell movement. (iv) Cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) 46. Which of the following is not the function of cell wall? (i) Provides shape to the cell. (ii) Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection. (iii) Helps in cell to cell interaction. (iv) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv) (c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of the above 47. Read the folowing statements and identify the correct option. (i) Contractile vacuole takes part in osmoregulation and excretion. (ii) Food vacuole is formed by engulfing the food particles. (iii) The vacuole is bound by a double membrane called tonoplast. (iv) Vacuole can occupy upto 90 percent of the volume of the cell. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) None of the above 48. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? (i) Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal cells. (ii) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. (iii) The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different neighbouring cells together. (iv) In animal cell, steroidal hormones are synthesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Of the above statements (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell : The Unit of Life 49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) The endomembrane system includes plasma membrane, ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles. (ii) ER helps in the transport of substances, synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen. (iii) Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis. (iv) Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation and generation of ATP. (a) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (b) (i) only (c) (ii) only (d) (iii) only Choose the wrong statements regarding bacterial cell (i) Glycocalyx is the outermost envelope in bacteria. (ii) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called capsule. (iii) The glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer. (iv) A special structure formed by the plasma membrane is called mesosome. (v) Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell are called fimbriae. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) Which of the following statements are correct ? (i) In prokaryotic cells, a special membranous structure formed by the extension of the plasma membrane into the cell is known as polysome. (ii) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of glycoproteins. (iii) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole biosphere. (iv) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes are not considered as part of endomembrane system. Of the above statements (a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement. (i) The endomembrane system includes mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes. (ii) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of lipid. (iii) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is actively involved in protein synthesis. (iv) Mitochondrial matrix possesses single circular DNA, a few RNA and 80S ribosomes. Of the above statements. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) Given below are some characters of a cell organelle. Identify the correct organelle which shows all the characters described above.

(i) It is a membrane bound space found in the cytoplasm. (ii) It is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast. (iii) It contains water, sap, excretory products and other materials not useful to the cell. (iv) It has higher concentration of sap than the cytoplasm. (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosomes (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Vacuoles 54. Read the statements given below with regard to the functions performed by Golgi apparatus ? (i) Transport and chemically modify the materials contained within it. (ii) Performs the function of packaging materials. (iii) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. Which of the following is the correct answer ? (a) (i) is wrong but (ii) and (iii) are correct (b) (ii) is wrong but (i) and (iii) are correct (c) (ii) and (iii) are wrong but (i) is correct (d) All are correct. 55. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) Na+/K+ pump is an example of active transport. (b) In plant cells lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER. (c) In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy up to 10% of the volume of the cell. (d) Chlorophyll and leucoplast are responsible for trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.

60.

61. 62.

Assertion : The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer. Reason : This ability to move within the membrane is called fluidity and is important for cell growth. Assertion : Pili are nonmotile appendages of bacteria. Reason : Pili take part in conjugation. Assertion : A plant cell bursts if placed in water. Reason : High turgor pressure causes bursting of plant cells.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 63. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Tonoplast I. Contain digestive enzyme B. Contractile vacuole II. Store metabolic gases C. Food vacuole III. Excretion D. Air vacuole IV. Transport of ions in plants (a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV 64. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Chromosome) (Position of Centromere) A. Metacentric I. At the tip B. Submetacentric II. Almost near the tip C. Acrocentric III. At the middle D. Telocentric IV. Slightly away from the middle (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I ; D – II 65. Match the items given in column-I with their role given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. SER I. Increase the surface area B. Golgi apparatus II. Store oils or fats C. Cristae III. Excretion D. Peroxisome IV. Photorespiration E. Elaioplasts V. Synthesis of lipid (a) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – II (b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – I (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II

66.

Match column-I (scientists) with column-II (discovery) and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Leeuwenhoek I. First saw and described a living cell B. Robert Brown II. Presence of cell wall is unique to plant cells C. Schleiden III. Discovered the nucleus D. Schwann IV. All plants are composed of different kind of cells (a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II (b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III 67. Match column I (cell type) with column II (size) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Cell type) (Size) A. Viruses I. 1-2 mm B. PPLO II. 10-20 mm C. Eukaryotic cell III. About 0.1 mm D. Bacterium IV. 0.02 - 0.2 mm (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

68.

69.

(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I Match column-I (cell organelle) with column-II membrane and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Mitochondria I. Without membrane B. Lysosomes II. Single membrane C. Ribosomes III. Double membrane (a) A – I; B – II; C – III (b) A – III; B – I; C – II (c) A – III; B – II; C – I (d) A – II; B – III; C – I Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Golgi apparatus I. Storage B. Mitochondria II. Photosynthesis C. Vacuoles III. Transport D. Grana IV. Secretion V. Respiration (a) A – IV; B – V; C – I: D – II (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV: D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II: D – III (d) A – I; B – II; C – III: D – IV

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell : The Unit of Life

70. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. RER I. Intracellular and extracellular digestion B. Cell wall II. Provide structural support to the cell C. Flagella III. Protein synthesis and secretion D. Lysosomes IV Responsible for cell movement (a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I 71. Match column-I and column-II answer Column-I A. Bacteria without walls I. B. Small circular DNA II. C. Flattened sacs in III. a chloroplast D. A vesicle in which IV. hydrolytic enzymes are stored

and select the correct Column-II Lysosome Mycoplasma cells Thylakoid Plasmid

(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I ; D – II 72. Which of the following pair are correctly matched? A. Microtubules – Structural components of cilia B. Centrioles – Store hydrolytic enzymes C. Amyloplasts – Store oil protein and starch in plants (a) A, B and C (b) A and B (c) A only (d) A and C 73. Choose the incorrect match. (a) Nucleus — RNA (b) Lysosome — Protein synthesis (c) Mitochondria — Respiration (d) Cytoskeleton — Microtubules 74. Which one of the following combination is mismatched? (a) Glycocalyx – May be capsule or slime layer (b) Pili – Reproduction (c) Cell wall – Protective, determines shape, prevents from bursting (d) Flagella, pili and fimbriae – Surface structures of bacterial cell

75.

Which of these is wrongly matched? (a) Chloroplasts – Chlorophyll (b) Elaioplasts – Starch (c) Chromoplasts – Carotenoids (d) Amyloplasts – Carbohydrates 76. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (a) Cristae – The tubular structure formed by the folding of th e in ner membrane of the mitochondrion. (b) Plasmodesmata – The membrane surrounding the vacuole in plants. (c) Grana – Membrane bound discs in chloroplasts that contain chlorophylls and carotenoids. (d) Middle lamella – Layer between adjacent cells walls in plants derived from cell plate. 77. Which of the following pair are correctly matched ? (I) Amyloplasts – Store proteins (II) Mitochondrion – ‘Power house’ of the cell (III) Stroma – Chlorophyll pigment (IV) Axoneme – 9 + 2 array (a) (I) and (III) only (b) (II), (III) and (IV) only (c) (III) and (IV) only (d) (II) and (IV) only 78. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly matched with their characters ? (a) Centrioles – Sites for active RNA synthesis. (b) Lysosomes – Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5. (c) Thylakoids – Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts. (d) Ribosomes – Those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S). 79. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Centrioles I. Non-membrane bound organelle which helps in cell division B. Fimbriae II. Special str ucture of bacteria which help them to attach with rocks in stream and also to host tissue C. Endomembrane III. Includes those organelles system whose functions are coordinated D. Mitochondria IV. Divide by fission and site of aerobic respiration (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – III ; D – II

80.

Which of the following terms is NOT correctly matched with its feature? (a) Osmosis – Movement of water by diffusion. (b) Nucleoplasm – Site of active synthesis of ribosomal RNA. (c) Mesosome – Infolding of cell membrane and characteristics of eukaryotes. (d) Pili – Elongated tubular surface structures (made of special protein) of bacteria.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 81. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the given section of cilia/flagella showing different parts. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of parts.

(a) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke (b) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke (c) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke (d) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C– Hub, D – Arm 82. The given diagram shows the types of chromosomes (labelled as A, B, C & D) based on the position of centromere. Which one is the correct option for the labelled chromosomes. A, B, C and D ?

(b) A – Acrocentric chromosome, B – Telocentric chromosome, C – Metacentric chromosome, D – Submetacentric chromosome (c) A – Submetacentric chromosome, B – Metacentric chromosome, C – Telocentric chromosome, D – Acrocentric chromosome (d) A – Metacentric chromosome, B – Submetacentric chromosome, C– Acrocentric chromosome, D – Telocentric chromosome. 83. Which of the following option correctly match A, B, C, and D indicated in the given sectional view of chloroplasts.

(a) A - Thylakoid, B-Stromal lamella, C - Stroma, D - Granum (b) A - Granum, B - Thylakoid, C - Stromal lamella, D - Stroma (c) A - Thylakoid, B - Granum, C - Stromal lamella, D - Stroma (d) A - Granum, B - Thylakoid, C - Stroma, D - Stromal lamella 84. The given diagram shows the sectional view of a mitochondrion. Ribosomes DNA (B) Tubuli (E)

(A) (D)

(a) A – Telocentric chromosome, B – Acrocentric chromosome, C – Submetacentric chromosome, D – Metacentric chromosome

(C)

Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D & E (a) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane, C - Matrix, D - Inter- membrane space, E - Crista (b) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane, C - Intermembrane space, D - Matrix, E - Crista (c) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane, C - Matrix, D - Crista, E - Inter - membrane space (d) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane, C- Crista, D - Matrix, E - Inter-membrane space

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell : The Unit of Life 85.

Identify the components labelled as A, B, C, D and E in the diagram given below from the list (i) to (viii). A B

(b) A - Desmosome, B - Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion, E - Ribosomes (c) A - Plasmodesmata, B - Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion, E - Ribosomes (d) A - Tight junction, B - Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion, E -Ribosomes 87. The diagram given below represent a filuid mosaic model of plasma membrance. Match the components marked as A, B, C, D and E in the diagram below from the list (i) to (vii).

D E

(i) Cristae of mitochondria (ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria (iii) Cytoplasm (iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (vi) Mitochondrial matrix (vii) Ribosome (viii) Nucleus A

86.

(a)

(viii) (v)

(vii)

(iii)

(iv)

(b)

(i)

(iv)

(vii)

(vi)

(iii)

(c)

(vi)

(v)

(iv)

(vii) (i)

(d)

(v)

(i)

(iii)

(ii)

(iv)

The following diagram shows some of the missing structures in a plant cell marked as A, B, C, D and E. Choose the option with their correct names.

(a) A - Plasmodesmata, B - Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion, E - Ribosomes

88.

(i) Sugar (ii) Protein (iii) Lipid bilayer (iv) Integral protein (v) Cytoplasm (vi) Cell wall (vii) External protein (a) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv), E - (v) (b) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv), E - (v) (c) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv), E - (vi) (d) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (vii), E - (v) Identify the cell organelle given below. Which is an important site of formation of glycoproteins & glycolipids?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Golgi body Mitochondria

89.

The following diagram represents a structure chromosome. Identify the structures marked as A, B and C.

Nucleus Nuclear pore

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Ribosome

(a) A - Satellite, B - Primary constriction, C - Acrocentric (b) A - Satellite, B - Secondary constriction, C - Metacentric (c) A - Satellite, B - Centromere, C - Telocentric (d) A - Satellite, B - Centromere, C - Submetacentric 90. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Smooth Endoplamic reticulum (a) Golgi apparatus– Protein synthesis (b) Golgi apparatus– Formation of glycolipids (c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum– Protein synthesis (d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum– Formation of glycoproteins 92. In the given figure of animal cell, one organelle is marked as A. Select the correct identification and function of the organelle ‘A’ from the given option.

Select the part correctly matched with its function. (a) Part (D): Outer membrane – Gives rise to inner membrane by splitting. (b) Part (B): Inner membrane – Forms infoldings called cristae. (c) Part (C): Cristae – Possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes. (d) Part (A): Matrix – Major site for respiratory chain enzymes. 91. Which one of the following organelle given below is correctly matched with its function ?

A (a) Endoplasmic reticulum– Synthesis of lipids. (b) Mitochondria– Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP. (c) Golgi body– Provides packaging material. (d) Lysosomes– Secrete hydrolytic enzymes. 93. The given figures show two types of cell. Which structures are common to both the cells?

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell : The Unit of Life

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS

Cell 1

Cell 2

(a) Nucleus and cell wall (b) Nucleus and cytoplasm (c) Ribosomes and flagella (d) Ribosomes and cell wall (Directions for 94 and 95): Refer the given figure of animal cell with few structure marked as W, X, Y and Z. On the basis of this figure answer the following questions.

W X

Y Z

94. Which cellular structure helps in transferring genetic information from one generation to another? (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z 95. Which function is carried out by the cell organelle 'X'? (a) helps control the movement of substance in and out of the cell (b) passes information from the parent cell to newly formed cell (c) maintains the proper shape of the cell and serves as a protective barrier (d) helps the cell to make food with the help of chlorophyll and sunlight

96. Microtubules are absent in (a) mitochondria (b) centriole (c) flagella (d) spindle fibres 97. Golgi apparatus is absent in (a) higher plants (b) yeast (c) bacteria and blue-green algae (d) None of the above 98. Most of water, in mature plant cells occurs in (a) nucleus (b) cell wall (c) vacuoles (d) cytoplasm 99. Which of the following lacks cell wall? (a) Gametes (b) Amoeba (c) Mycoplasma (d) All of these 100. What would happen if lysosomes get ruptured in a cell? (a) Cell dies (b) Cell shrinks (c) Cell swell up (d) Nothing would happen 101. Cell sap is a (a) living content of cytoplasm. (b) nonliving content of cytoplasm. (c) nonliving content of vacuole. (d) living content of vacuole. 102. The fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold weather may be maintained by (a) increasing the number of phospholipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails. (b) increasing the proportion of integral proteins. (c) increasing concentration of cholesterol in membrane. (d) increasing the number of phospholipids with saturated hydrocarbon tail. 103. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes? (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Plasma membrane (d) Mitochondria 104. In which method of transport, plasma membrane does not require carrier molecule? (a) Active transport (b) Facilitated diffusion (c) Simple diffusion (d) Na+ – K+ pump 105. pH of vacuolar cell sap is (a) neutral and isotonic. (b) alkaline and isotonic. (c) acidic and hypertonic. (d) equal to cytoplasm and isotonic. 106. Which of the following pair lack the unit membrane? (a) Nucleus and E.R. (b) Mitochondria and chloroplast (c) Ribosome and nucleolus (d) Golgi body and lysosome

107. The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is (a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria (c) lysosome (d) endoplasmic reticulum 108. Active transport differs from passive transport in that active transport (a) requires energy. (b) always requires input of ATP. (c) moves molecules against a concentration gradient. (d) both (a) and (c) 109. Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are all part of the (a) mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in chloroplasts. (b) rough ER in prokaryotic cells. (c) cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells. (d) process that moves small molecules across cell membranes. 110. You are asked to examine a cell using a powerful light microscope. The image you see has a clearly defined nucleus and mitochondria. It also has a large central vacuole and chloroplasts. From what group of organisms did this cell most likely come? (a) Bacteria (b) Protists (c) Fungi (d) Plants 111. The best way to identify a cell as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic is to determine whether (a) it came from a single-celled or multicellular organism. (b) it has a nucleus. (c) it has a plasma membrane. (d) it has cytosol. 112. Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell? (a) Mitochondrion (b) Lysosome (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Endoplasmic reticulum 113. Centrifugation of a cell results in the rupture of the cell membrane and the contents compacting into a pellets in the bottom of the centrifuge tube. Bathing this pellet with a glucose solution yields metabolic activity including the production of ATP. One of the contents of this pellet is most likely which of the following? (a) Cytosol (b) Mitochondria (c) Lysosomes (d) Golgi bodies Directions for Q 114 and 115: A student was given cell samples (A and B) to identify parts which are highlighted. He observed the samples under the microscope and list down the function of the part of cell sample. The information collected

by the student is listed in the table below, on the basis of which the student infers that the samples contain the organelles.

Sample A

Sample B

Make energy available for cellular metabolism Absent in cell that carry oxygen throughout the body Called the energy currency of cell

Generates ATP and synthesizes sugar Present in plant cell Source of all the food energy

114. Identify the part highlighted in the sample A and B and explain why they were called as semi-autonomous organelles? (a) Sample A - Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because both the organelles are double membrane bound structure. (b) Sample A- Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because they both are capable of synthesis of their own proteins only. (c) Sample A - Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because they are capable of synthesis of their own proteins and contain their own DNA. (d) Sample A- Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because they contain their own DNA to transfer the genetic information from one generation to another. 115. Explain why the samples were belonged to eukaryotic cell and not prokaryotic cell? Because, (a) eukaryotic cell have membrane bound organelles. (b) eukaryotic cell have non - membrane bound organelles. (c) eukaryotic cell are smaller and multiply more rapidly than prokaryotic cells. (d) eukaryotic cell are larger and multiply more rapidly than prokaryotic cells. 116. A student placed two cells in the same solution in two different containers. The observation was given in the table. Container 1 2

Observation Cell burst

Cell does not change its shape Which structure maintains the shape of the cell present in container 2 and provides the most significant difference between the two cells? (a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall (c) Chloroplast (d) Cell membrane 117. The cell theory was given in year 1839 by Schleiden and Schwann. According to this theory all organisms are composed of cell and cells are the basic unit of life. How did this theory help in the field of science? (a) It helped to study the working of cells. (b) It helped in curing diseases caused by cell. (c) It helped in restating the earlier theories on cell. (d) It helped in introducing the use of microscopes to study cell.

EBD_7209

Biology

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

10.

The acid used for preliminary separation of biomolecule in a living tissue is (a) trichlorobenzoic acid (b) benzoic acid (c) trichloroacetic acid (d) acetic acid Biomolecules are (a) organic compounds (b) inorganic compounds (c) volatile compounds (d) both (a) and (b) Which of the following is the example of acidic amino acid ? (a) Lysine (b) Glutamic acid (c) Aspartic acid (d) Both (b) and (c) All the following amino acids are aromatic, except (a) tyrosine (b) phenylalanine (c) tryptophan (d) valine The most basic amino acid is (a) arginine (b) histidine (c) glycine (d) glutamine The simplest amino acid is _________. (a) glycine (b) proline (c) leucine (d) tryptophan The charged molecule which is electrically neutral is known as (a) amino acid (b) zwitterion (c) amide (d) peptide Unsaturated fatty acids have (a) palmitic acid (b) oleic acid (c) high melting point (d) one or more double bonds Which of the following is/are essential fatty acid(s)? (a) Linoleic acid (b) Linolenic acid (c) Arachidonic acid (d) All of these Phospholipids are important cell membrane constituents, because they (a) contain glycerol. (b) can form bilayers in water. (c) combine covalently with protein. (d) contain polar and non-polar portions.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

Chapter

Biomolecules

Glycerol is a (a) tetrahydroxy propane (b) trihydroxy propane (c) trihydroxy butane (d) tetrahydroxy butane A fat has (a) 3 glycerol and one fatty acid molecule. (b) one glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules. (c) 3 glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules. (d) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule. Lecithin is a (a) phospholipid (b) carbohydrate (c) protein (d) amino acid A nucleotide is formed of (a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (b) purine, sugar and phosphate (c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate Building block of nucleic acid is ________. (a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside (c) amino acid (d) fatty acid Inulin is a polymer of (a) glucose (b) galactose (c) fructose (d) arabinose Primary structure of protein is due to the presence of ______. (a) hydrogen bonds (b) peptide bonds (c) – S – S – linkages (d) ionic bonds Most abundant protein in human body is (a) collagen (b) myosin (c) actin (d) albumin Quaternary structure is present in ________. (a) haemoglobin (b) histone (c) globulin (d) elastin The bond between phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar in nucleic acid is _______. (a) glycosidic bond (b) peptide bond (c) ester bond (d) none of these Turn over number of enzyme depends upon (a) size of enzyme molecule. (b) number of the active sites. (c) concentration of substrate molecule. (d) molecular weight of as enzyme.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate concentration at which the reaction reaches to (a) zero (b) 2 Vmax (c) ½ Vmax (d) ¼ Vmax Ribozyme is a/an (a) enzyme whose cofactor is RNA. (b) RNA with enzyme activity. (c) enzyme by which RNA is formed. (d) conjugated protein having ribose sugar. Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by (a) enzyme (b) substrate (c) end product (d) intermediate end products Co-enzyme is (a) always a protein. (b) often a metal. (c) always an inorganic compound. (d) often a vitamin. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes ? (a) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme (c) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor (d) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at ________ temperature and ________ pressure. (a) high, low (b) low, low (c) low, high (d) high, high

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 28.

29.

30.

Which of the following statement is not true about amino acid? (a) The amino group and carboxylic group of an amino acid are attached to both amino and carboxylic groups to alpha carbon. (b) Amino acids have an N-terminus, C-terminus, and R groups. (c) Amino acid can be classified by the number of peptide bond. (d) Essential amino acids are not synthesized in the body, therefore have to be provided in the diet. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) Long chain molecules of fatty acids are formed by polymerization of 2 carbon compounds. (b) Lipid molecules are soluble in water. (c) In lipid, R group may be –CH3 group, –C2H5 group or higher number of –CH2 group (1 to 19 carbon). (d) Oils have lower melting temperature. Select the incorrect statement. (a) Amino acids are substituents methanes. (b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane. (c) Lysine is a neutral amino acid. (d) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

Select the incorrect statement. (a) Ribozymes are nucleic acids with catalytic power. (b) Proteins are homopolymer made of amino acids. (c) Inulin is a polymer of fructose. (d) Glycogen is stored in liver and muscles. Pick out the correct statement. (a) Chitin is a homopolymer. (b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere. (c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. (d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding chitin? (a) It is a storage of polysaccharide. (b) It is a heteropolysaccharide. (c) It is a constituent of arthropods and fungal cell wall. (d) It is a second most abundant carbohydrate on earth. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding secondary metabolites ? (a) Plant tissues produce only secondary metabolities. (b) Secondary metabolities have restricted distribution in the plant kingdoms. (c) Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolities used as a drugs. (d) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance. Which of the following statements about enzymes is incorrect? (a) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms. They are effective even at 80° - 90°C. (b) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity. (c) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids. (d) Enzymes are highly specific. Which statement is incorrect about coenzyme ? (a) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme. (b) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme. (c) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins. (d) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzyme. Study the given statements and select the correct option. (i) Nitrogen bases are open chain hydrocarbons. (ii) A nucleoside differ from nucleotide in not having phosphate. (iii) One turn of B-DNA has ten base pairs. (iv) Length of one turn of DNA is 3.4 Å. (a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct. (b) Statements (i) and (iv) are correct. (c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are incorrect. (d) Statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect.

EBD_7209

Biology

Biomolecules 38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Chitin, a complex or heteropolysaccharide occuring in exoskeleton consists of NAG. (ii) Glucosamine and N-acetyl glucosamine are modified sugar. (iii) Cellulose shows blue colour when treated with I2. (iv) Starch in plants and glycogen in animals are store houses of energy. (v) Right end of polysaccharide is called reducing end while left end is called non-reducing end. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii), (iv) and (v) (c) All except (iii) (d) All except (v) Select false statements for an enzyme promoting a chemical reaction by (i) lowering the energy of activation. (ii) causing the release of heat, which acts as a primer. (iii) increasing molecular motion. (iv) changing the free energy difference between substrate and product. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given in random order. (i) The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is free to bind another substrate. (ii) The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate breaks the bond of substrate and forms E-P complex. (iii) Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate. (iv) The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e., fitting into the active site). The correct order is (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (c) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect? (i) Nearly 1/3rd of all enzymes requires the presence of metal ions for catalytic function. (ii) Metal ions form coordinate bond with side chain at active site of metalloenzyme and at the same time form one or more coordinate bonds with the substrate. (iii) NAD and NAD (coenzymes) contain niacin (vit.B3) (iv) Coenzymes are organic compounds but their association with the apoenzyme is only transient, usually occurring during catalysis. (a) All of these (b) Only (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iv) (d) None of these Which of the given option is correct for the following statements ? (i) The metabolic pathway in which acetic acid is converted into cholesterol is an endothermic one. (ii) Anabolic pathway is endergonic while catabolic pathway is exergonic. (iii) Without metabolism there can not be a living state. (a) All are correct (b) All are wrong (c) (i) and (ii) are correct (d) Only (iii) is correct

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 43. Assertion: A coenzymes or metal ions that is very tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. Reason: A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme. 44. Assertion: Glycosidic bonds are formed by dehydration. Reason: In polysaccharides, individual monosaccharide is linked by glycosidic bond. 45. Assertion: Human diet should compulsorily contain glycine, serine and tyrosine. Reason: Essential amino acids can be synthesized in the human body. 46. Assertion : Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats. Reason : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure. 47. Assertion : In a DNA molecule, A–T rich parts melt before G–C rich parts. Reason: In between A and T there are three H–bond, whereas in between G and C there are two Hbonds. 48. Assertion: The amino acid glycine comes under the category of nonessential amino acids. Reason: This is due to the fact that it can not be synthesised in the body.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 49.

Match column I (organic compound) with column II (examples) and choose the correct combination from the given options. Column-I Column-II (Organic Compounds) (Examples) A. Fatty acid I. Glutamic acid B. Phospholipid II. Tryptophan C. Aromatic amino acid III. Lecithin D. Acidic amino acid IV. Palmitic acid (a) A – I; B – II; C – III, D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II, D – I (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II

50.

Match the biomoecules given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct answer. Column I Column II (Biomolecules) (Examples) A. Carbohydrates I. Trypsin B. Protein II. Cholesterol C. Nucleic acid III. Insulin D. Lipid IV. Adenylic acid (a) A – III; B – I; C – IV, D – II (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III 51. Match the protein given in column I with its function given in column II and choose the right option. Column I Column II (Proteins) (Functions) A. Collagen I. Glucose transport B. Trypsin II. Hormone C. Insulin III. Intercellular ground substance D. GLUT-4 IV. Enzyme (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II 52. Match the column-I (component) with column-II (% of the total cellular mass) and identify the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Component) (% of the total cellular mass) A. Water I. 3 B. Proteins II. 70-90 C. Carbohydrates III. 2 D. Lipids IV. 5-7 E. Nucleic acids V. 10-15 (a) A – V; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – I (b) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – IV (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I 53. Match column I (category) with column II (secondary metabolites)and choose the correct option. Column I Column II (Category) (Secondary metabolites) A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Cadeine D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin (a) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Cotton fibre I. Chitin B. Exoskeleton of II. Glycogen cockroach C. Liver III. Starch D. Peeled potato IV. Cellulose (a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III Match column I (function) with column II (Types of enzymes) and select the correct option. Column I Column II (Function) (Types of enzymes) A. Enzymes catalysing I. Isomerases breakdown without addition of water. B. Enzyme catalyzes the II. Oxidoreductase conversion of an aldose sugar to a ketose sugar. C. Enzyme where III. Ligases catalysis involves transfer of electrons. D. Enzyme catalysing IV. Lyases bonding of two components with the help of ATP. (a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it ? (a) Adenine, thymine – Purines (b) Thymine, uracil – Pyrimidines (c) Uracil, cytosine – Pyrimidines (d) Guanine, adenine – Purines Mark the odd pair in the followings (a) Amino acid – Protein (b) Nucleotide – DNA (c) Glycerol – Fatty acid (d) Monosaccharide – Cellulose Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (a) Fungi – Chitin (b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane (c) Enzyme – Lipopolysaccharide (d) ATP – Nucleotide derivative Find out the wrongly matched pair (a) Primary metabolite – Ribose (b) Secondary metabolite – Anthocyanins (c) Chitin – Polysaccharide (d) Cellulose – Heteropolymer

EBD_7209

Biology

Biomolecules 60.

61.

62.

63.

Choose the mismatch pair (a) Glutamic acid – Acidic (b) Lysine – Basic (c) Valine – Charged (d) Phenylalanine – Aromatic Find out the odd one from the given pair. (a) Polysaccharide – Glycosidic bond (b) Protein – Peptide bond (c) Fat – Ester (d) Polynucleotide – Hydrogen bond Which of the following is wrongly matched ? (a) Ribozyme – Proteinaceous in nature. (b) Apoenzyme – The protein part of enzyme. (c) Co-enzyme – Loosely attached organic cofactor of haloenzyme (d) Co-factors – Non-protein part of haloenzyme. Find out the correct match. (a) Inulin – Polymer of glucose (b) Starch – Spiral secondary structure (c) Cellulose – Component of cell wall (d) Glycogen – Monosaccharide and reserved food of plants

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 64.

Which of the two groups (marked as 1, 2, 3, & 4) of following formula involved in peptide bond between different amino acids?

66.

Identify the following molecule.

(a) Phospholipid (b) Lecithin (c) Cholesterol (d) Oleic acid 67. Refer the given structure of adenylc acid. In this identify A. O || HO – P – OCH2 | OH A

Y A V C

A Ki Vmax 2

B Km

Vmax

(c)

Vmax

(d)

Vmax

(b)

B 69.

[S] B

(a)

N-base

(a) Glycosidic bond (b) Phosphate bond (c) Ester bond (d) Ionic bond 68. The adjoining graph shows change in concentration of substrate on enzyme activity. Identify A, B and C.

H2 | 1 H 2 N—C—COOH 3 | R4 (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 65. What kinds of the structures of proteins are shown in the given figure (A, B, C and D)?

Vmax 2 Vmax 2

The given structural formulas represent amino acids (labelled by as X, Y and Z)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

C D A = 1º structure, B = 2º structure, C = 3º structure, D = 4º structure A = 4º structure, B = 2º structure, C = 3º structure, D = 1º structure A = 1º structure, B = 4º structure, C = 3º structure, D = 2º structure A = 4º structure, B = 3º structure, C = 2º structure, D = 1º structure

CH3 CH2 – OH H X Y Z Identify the correct name of X, Y and Z. (a) Alanine, serine and glycine respectively. (b) Tyrosine, cysteine and glutamic acid respectively. (c) Glycine, alanine and serine acid respectively. (d) Cysteine, glutamic acid and tyrosine respectively.

70.

The structural formula given below belongs to

73.

CH2OH

Which one of the given graph shows the effect of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic reaction (V) ?

(a) HO

OH OH

(b)

(c)

(a) glucose (b) ribose (c) sucrose (d) deoxyribose 71. The given graph shows concept of activation energy with labelled 1, 2, 3, & 4. Co-relate the statements I, II, III & IV with 1, 2, 3 & 4.

74.

pH (d) V

pH pH The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration.) Identify the correct representation of two axes (x and y).

Energy

3 1

A+B

}

C 2 Progress of the reaction I. II.

Segment representing the energy of activation. Segment representing the amount of free energy released by the reaction. III. Transition state. IV. Segment would be the same regardless of whether the reaction were uncatalysed or catalysed.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

II 3 2 3 2

III 2 3 2 4

IV 4 2 4 3

HOCH2 O X

What is denoted by X and Y in the given graph ? Y X

Potential energy

72.

I 1 1 1 1

75.

76. Progress of reaction

(a) (b) (c)

O || O CH2 – O – C – R || | R2 – C – O – CH | CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2 | | OH N CH3 | CH3 CH3 |

Y Activation energy with enzyme Activation energy without enzyme Substrate concentration without enzyme Substrate concentration with enzyme

OH OH Category Component (X) (a) Cholesterol Guanine (b) Amino acid NH2 (c) Nucleotide Adenine (d) Nucleoside Uracil Which one of the following structural formulae (A & B) of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?

(d)

X Activation energy without enzyme Activation energy with enzyme Substrate concentration with enzyme Substrate concentration without enzyme

x - axis y-axis (a) Enzymatic activity pH (b) Temperature Enzymatic activity (c) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity (d) Enzymatic activity Temperature The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and one blank component marked as “X” in it.

EBD_7209

Biology

Biomolecules

82.

N B.

N (a) B : Adenine — A nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids. (b) A: Triglyceride — Major source of energy (c) B : Uracil — A component of DNA (d) A: Lecithin — A component of cell membrane The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme greengram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?

Velocity

77.

83.

84.

85.

O Substrate concentration

78.

(a) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration. (b) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture. (c) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex. (d) At higher substrate concentration the pH increases. Which of the following shows zwitter ionic form?

(a)

R | H3 N - CH - COOH

(c)

R | H 2 N - CH - COO -

(b)

86.

87.

R | H3 N - CH - COO +

88. (d) None of these

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 79.

80.

81.

According to weight percentage, the first three elements in human body are (a) C > H > O (b) C > O > N (c) O > N > C (d) O > C > H In the composition of cellular mass, arrange the components- proteins(P), carbohydrates(C), lipids(L) and nucleic acids(N) in decreasing order of mass percentage. (a) C > N > P > L (b) P > N > C > L (c) P > C > L > N (d) P > N > L > C If all the peptide bonds of a protein are broken down, then what would remain? (a) Amino acids (b) Peptides (c) Polypeptides (d) Oligopeptides

89.

90.

Relation between amino acid and protein is similar to the one found between (a) glucose and fructose (b) thymine and uracil (c) nucleosides and nucleic acid (d) nucleotides and nucleic acid Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by (a) base-sugar-phosphate. (b) base-sugar-OH. (c) (base-sugar-phosphate)n. (d) sugar-phosphate. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that (a) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends share the same position. (b) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole). (c) one strand turns clockwise. (d) one strand turns anti-clockwise. Which of the following is not an attribute of enzymes ? (a) They are substrate specific in nature. (b) They are proteinaceous in nature. (c) They are used up in the reaction. (d) They speed up rate of biochemical reaction. “All enzymes are proteins.” This statement is now modified because an apparent exception to this biological truth is (a) arylsulfatase (b) dehydrogenase (c) ribozyme (d) nitroreductase Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecule on earth, are produced by (a) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells. (b) fungi, algae and green plant cells. (c) all bacteria, fungi and algae. (d) viruses, fungi and bacteria. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized? (a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane. (b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms. (c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule. (d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule. The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by (a) temperature. (b) concentration of the substrate. (c) original activation energy of the system. (d) concentration of the enzyme. Which of the following set is correctly match to the category mentioned against them ? (a) Lysine, glycine, thiamine – amino acids. (b) Arachidonic acid, acetic acid, palmitic acid – Fatty acids (c) Thymidine, uridine, cytidilic acid – Nucleosides (d) Cellulose, inulin, glycogen – Polysaccharides

91.

92.

The stored form of sugar in animal is a (a) homopolysaccharide (b) heteropolysaccharide (c) oligosaccharide (d) diasaccharide Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction. S - G + S' ® S + S'- G

(a) Dehydrogenase (b) Transferase (c) Hydrolase (d) Lyase 93. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is. (a) permanent but unstable. (b) transient and unstable. (c) permanent and stable. (d) transient but stable. 94. For a protein to have a quaternary structure, it must (a) have four amino acids. (b) consist of two or more polypeptide subunits. (c) consist of four polypeptide subunits. (d) have at least four disulphide bridges. 95. The quaternary structure of human haemoglobin is best described as a (a) dimer of identical subunits. (b) dimer of different subunits. (c) tetramer of four different subunits. (d) tetramer of two different subunits. 96. At temperature near freezing point, the enzymes are (a) inactivated (b) activated (c) slightly activated (d) slightly inactivated 97. A nucleoside differs from nucleotide is not having (a) sugar (b) nitrogen (c) phosphate (d) phosphate and sugar 98. Hexokinase (Glucose + ATP ® Glucose 6-P + ADP) belongs to the category (a) transferases (b) lyases (c) oxidoreductases (d) isomerases 99. Sugar-phosphate backbone in nucleic acid (a) is hydrophilic in nature. (b) is negatively charged. (c) shows polarity. (d) all of the above. 100. On hydrolysis, a nucleoside would not yield (a) purine (b) pyrimidine (c) pentose sugar (d) phosphoric acid 101. The information in a genetic nucleic acid resides in the (a) number of nucleotides. (b) kinds of nucleotides. (c) sequence of nucleotides. (d) all of the above. 102. Km is related to (a) temperature (b) ES complex (c) pH (d) none of these

103. When triglycerides are solid at ordinary room temperature, they are called (a) oils (b) gases (c) fats (d) none of these 104. Natural lipids are readily soluble in (a) oil (b) water (c) mercury (d) none of these 105. Enzyme that break nucleic acids into nucleotides belongs to which of the following class ? (a) Oxidoreductases (b) Transferases (c) Hydrolases (d) Lyases 106. Enzymes are sensitive to (a) light (b) pH (c) temperature (d) both (b) and (c) 107. Primary structure of polypeptide is stabilized or secondary structure of polypeptide is maintained by (a) disulphide bonds. (b) ionic bonds. (c) hydrogen bonds. (d) hydrophobic interactions. 108. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the (a) Km value. (b) pH optimum value. (c) formation of the product. (d) molecular size of the enzyme. 109. What will happen when the cofactor is removed from the enzyme? (a) Catalytic activity of the enzyme is lost. (b) Enzyme preserves in a temporarily inactive state. (c) The substurate molecules are not closely related to enzymes molecules. (d) Both b and c 110. "When glucose is degraded to lactic acid in skeletal muscles energy is liberated". Which of the following conclusion is correctly associated with the above statement? enzyme? (a) It is a catabolic pathway which releases energy. (b) It is an anabolic pathway which releases energy. (c) The energy, liberated during this degradation, is trapped and stored in the form of chemical bonds (ADP). (d) None of the above. 111. Why the velocity of enzymatic reaction is not exceeded by any further rise in the concentration of the substrate? (a) The enzyme molecules are equal to the substrate molecules. (b) The enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecules (c) The substrate molecules are not closely resembled to the enzyme molecules. (d) Both b and c.

EBD_7209

Biology

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in ______ (a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase (c) Mitotic metaphase (d) S phase Which phase of cell cycle is known as quiescent stage ? (a) M phase (b) G0 phase (c) G1 phase (d) S phase Interphase includes all of the following except ______ (a) G1 phase (b) Anaphase (c) S phase (d) G2 phase Which of the following phase is called the resting phase during which cell is preparing for division by undergoing both cell growth and replication of DNA? (a) M – phase (b) Prophase (c) Go phase (d) Interphase Which of the following phase follows S and G2 phases of interphase? (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase In mitosis, nucleolus and nuclear membrane disappear at (a) interphase (b) prophase (c) metaphase (d) telophase What is the stage of mitosis in which chromosomes are arranged on the equator of spindle? (a) Anaphase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase (d) Telophase Best stage to observe shape, size and number of chromosomes is ______ (a) interphase (b) metaphase (c) prophase (d) telophase In anaphase of mitosis, (a) chromosomes get arranged in middle of cell. (b) nuclear envelope disappears. (c) chromosome fibres become clear. (d) chromosomes aggregate at opposite poles to form daughter nuclei.

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Chapter

Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis? (a) Plastid and nuclear membrane (b) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane (c) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulum and plasma membrane In meiosis, division is (a) Ist reductional and IInd equational. (b) Ist equational and IInd reductional. (c) both reductional. (d) both equational. Interkinesis is a (a) stage between meiosis I and meiosis II. (b) stage between two mitotic divisions. (c) interphase. (d) both (b) and (c) Synapsis occurs between (a) spindle fibres and centromeres. (b) mRNA and ribosomes. (c) a male and female gamete. (d) two homologous chromosomes. During mitosis, nuclear envelope, nucleolous begin to form and ER to reappear at ______ (a) prophase (b) late metaphase (c) anaphase (d) telophase The synaptonemal complex appears (a) between homologous chromosomes. (b) in zygotene stage. (c) composed of DNA + protein. (d) All of the above Chromosome synapsis or bivalent formation occurs in ______ (a) leptotene (b) zygotene (c) pachytene (d) diplotene Crossing over occurs between (a) sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. (b) non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. (c) sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes. (d) non-sister ch romatids of non-homologous chromosomes.

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Crossing over occurs during ______ (a) leptotene (b) pachytene (c) diplotene (d) diakinesis Recombination involves (a) crossing over (b) chromosome duplication (c) spindle formation (d) cytokinesis Chiasmata are first seen in ______ (a) leptotene (b) zygotene (c) pachytene (d) diplotene In which stage, the chromosomes appear thin and long thread-like ? (a) Zygotene (b) Leptotene (c) Pachytene (d) Prophase Terminalization occurs during ______ (a) mitosis (b) diakinesis (c) meiosis II (d) cytokinesis Electron micrographs of which stage indicate that chromosomes accompanied by the formation of complex structure called synaptonemal complex? (a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specializes structure in the centromere region of each chromosome called the __________. (a) Telomere (b) Centriole (c) Chromatin (d) Kinetochore Cell plate grows from (a) wall to centre (b) centre to walls (c) one wall to another (d) simultaneously

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STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 26.

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Select the correct statement with respect to mitosis. (a) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase. (b) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase. (c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase. (d) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle ? (a) Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina. (b) Transcription from chromosomes, and re-assembly of the nuclear lamina. (c) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast. (d) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes.

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Which of the following statement is not true for homologous chromosome pairs ? (a) They come from only one of the individual’s parents. (b) They usually contain slightly different versions of the same genetic information. (c) They segregate from each other during meiosis I. (d) They synapse during meiosis I. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ? (a) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacents cells. (b) At the time of cytokinesis, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the daughter cells. (c) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes place by cell-plate formation while animal cells by furrowing/cleavage and is centripetal. (d) All of the above Significance of mitosis involves (a) the growth of multicellular organism. (b) cell repair. (c) production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement. (d) all of the above Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about S-phase (synthetic phase) ? (i) It occurs between G1 and G2 phase. (ii) It marks the period during which DNA replicates. (iii) At the end of this phase, DNA is doubled but the number of chromosomes remains unchanged. (iv) As the DNA is doubled in this phase number of chromosomes is also doubled. (v) Centrioles replicate in this phase. (vi) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C. (a) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) (c) All of the above (d) Only (iv) Which of the following statements related to G0 stage of the cell cycle are correct? (i) It is a quiescent stage. (ii) In this phase, cell cycle is stopped. (iii) G0 cells do not grow or proliferate but metabolically active. (iv) G0 cells can divide in response to some stimulus. (a) (i), and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) All of the above Which one is correct about bivalent ? (i) Bivalent are tetrads. (ii) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 centromere. (iii) One bivalent consists of 2 h omologous chromosomes each and sister chromatids. (iv) Bivalents formation occurs in zygotene. (a) All of these (b) Only (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell Cycle and Cell Division 34.

35.

Which one is correct about crossing over/genetic recombination? (i) It occurs in tetrad stage which occurs in pachytene of prophase I of meiosis I. (ii) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. (iii) It is recombinase enzyme mediated process. (iv) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between the non-homologous chromosomes (a) All of the above (b) All except (iv) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) Read the following statements about cell division and select the correct statements. (i) M phase represents the phase when actual cell division occurs and I phase represents the phase between two successive M phase. (ii) In the 24 hours, average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only about an hour. (iii) M phase constitutes more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

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MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 44.

Assertion: The final stage of meiotic prophase 1 is diplotene. Reason: Diplotene is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. Assertion: The crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process. Reason: The enzyme involved in crossing over is lyase. Assertion: Metaphase II begins with splitting of centromere of each chromosome into two. Reason: In Anaphase II chromosomes align at the equator.

Match the description (given in column I) with correct stage of prophase I (given column II) and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Chromosomes are moved I. Pachytene to spindle equator B. Centromere splits and II. Zygotene chromatids apart C. Pairing between homologous III. Anaphase chromosomes takes place D. Crossing between homologous IV. Metaphase chromosomes (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I

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(d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II Match the terms (given in column I) with their explanation (given in column II) and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column I Column II (Terms) (Explanation) A. Terminalization I. Pairing of homologous chromosomes. B. Synapsis II. Point of attachment between homologous chromosomes. C. Chiasmata III. Nuclear protein complex that helps in adherence of sister chromatids and then homologous chromosomes. D. Synaptonemal IV. Shifting of chiasmata outwards complex towards the ends of a bivalent. (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

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Match the description given in column-I with their stapes given in column-II and identify the correct answer. Column-I Column-II A. Initiation of the assembly I. Anaphase of mitotic spindle B. Proteins are synthesized in II. Prophase preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues. C. Spindle fibres attach to III. Interphase kinetochores of chromosomes. D. Movement of chromatids IV. Metaphase towards opposite poles The correct match is (a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II Select the correctly matched pair. A. S phase – DNA replication B. Zygotene – Synapsis C. Diplotene – Crossing over D. Meiosis – Both haploid and diploid cells (a) A and B (b) C and D (c) B and D (d) A and C Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option. A. Zygotene – Pairing of homologous chromosomes B. Pachytene – Dissolution of the complex synaptonemal takes place C. Diplotene – Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads D. Diakinesis – Terminalization of chiasmata takes place (a) A and C (b) A and D (c) A and B (d) B and C Choose the mismatch pair. (a) Karyokinesis – Division of centromere (b) Cytokinesis – Division of cytoplasm (c) S-phase – DNA synthesis (d) Synapsis – Pairing of homologous chromosomes Find out the wrongly matched pair of the stage of prophase I with their feature. (a) Zygotene – Synaptonemal complex (b) Pachytene – Mutation (c) Diplotene – Chiasmata (d) Diakinesis – Terminalization Mark the incorrect pair. (a) Interphase – S-phase (b) M phase – Metaphase (c) Meiosis I – Diplotene (d) Meiosis II – Diakinesis Which of the following pair is correctly matched ? (a) G1 – Second growth phase (b) S – Duplication phase (c) G2 – Synthesis phase (d) G0 – Quiescent stage

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Which of the following pair is correctly matched ? (a) Anaphase I – Homologous chromosomes are separated. (b) Metaphase I – Pairing of maternal and paternal chromosomes. (c) Interphase – A nuclear envelop encloses each haploid set of chromosomes. (d) Prophase I – Non-homologous chromosomes are separated.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 54.

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Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases / stages of cell cycle with few parts labelled as A, B, C & D.

Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle? (a). C - Karyokinesis (b) D - Synthetic phase (c) A - Cytokinesis (d) B - Metaphase Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?

Fig. A Fig. B (a) A - Metaphase ; B - Telophase (b) A - Telophase ; B - Metaphase (c) A - Late Anaphase ; B - Prophase (d) A - Prophase ; B - Anaphase Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which stage is shown by the given figure?

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell Cycle and Cell Division

57.

(a) Prophase I during meiosis. (b) Prophase II during meiosis. (c) Prophase of mitosis. (d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.

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(a) Late anaphase Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex is not present. (b) Cytokinesis Cell plate is formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells. (c) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet (d) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms The following diagram is of a typical cell cycle indicating formation of two cells from one cell.

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(a) Late prophase – Chromosomes move to spindle equator. (b) Metaphase – Spindle fibres attached to kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatids separate (c) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to spindle equator chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids (d) Anaphase – centromeres split and chromatids separate and start moving away Choose the diagram which correctly depicts anaphase I.

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e as Ph

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Pr op ha se

es is Cytokin se a h p e Telo phas ase a h An etap M

Choose the correct option showing the correct identification of X, Y, & Z. (a) X - G1; Y - S; Z - G2 (b) X - G2; Y - S; Z - G1 (c) X - G0; Y - S; Z - G2 (d) X - G1; Y - G0; Z - S A stage of mitosis is shown in the given diagram. Identify stage with its characteristics?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

C A-Metaphase A-Metaphase-I A-Metaphase-II A-Anaphase-I

B-Anaphase B-Anaphase-I B-Anaphase-II B-Metaphase-I

C-Telophase C-Telophase-I C-Telophase-II C-Telophase-I

Identify the phases from the graph given below that shows the change in DNA content during various phases (A to D) of mitotic cell cycle.

DNA content

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The diagram shows a cell whose diploid chromosome number is four. Which one of the following option shows correct stage of cell ? 72.

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Metaphase Anaphase of mitosis Anaphase I of meiosis Anaphase II of meiosis

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CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 64.

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In the somatic cell cycle (a) In G1 phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell. (b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase. (c) a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase. (d) G2 phase follows mitotic phase. In which stage of the cell cycle, histone proteins are synthesized in a eukaryotic cell? (a) During G2 stage of prophase. (b) During S-phase. (c) During entire prophase. (d) During telophase. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells? (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 64 During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively? (a) Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions).

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(b) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I). (c) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I). (d) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I). Significance of meiosis lies in (a) reduction of chromosome number to one half. (b) maintaining consistancy of chromosome number during sexual reproduction. (c) production of genetic variability. (d) all of the above. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 100 pollen grains ? (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 125 Mitosis and meiosis take place respectively in (a) meristem and gametangia. (b) gametangia and meristem. (c) permanent tissues and secretory tissues. (d) secretory tissues and permanent tissues. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into? (a) Metaphase (b) Telophase (c) Anaphase (d) Prophase Which of the following is the result when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis ? (a) Synaptonemal complex (b) Syncytium (c) Recombination nodules (d) Terminalization Which of the following occurs only once in life cycle ? (a) Replication of histone. (b) Replication of chromosomes. (c) Mitosis (d) Meiosis “G0” state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes (a) check point before entering the next phase. (b) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a temporary delay. (c) death of a cell. (d) exit of cells from cell cycle. Mitosis occurs in (a) haploid individuals. (b) diploid individuals. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) in bacteria only. Mitosis is the process by which eukaryotic cells (a) expose the genes for protein synthesis. (b) become specialized in structure and function. (c) multiply. (d) grow. The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes is (a) replication of the genetic material. (b) splitting of the chromatids. (c) splitting of the centromeres. (d) condensation of the chromatin.

EBD_7209

Biology

Cell Cycle and Cell Division 78.

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In animal cells, cytokinesis involves (a) the separation of sister chromatids. (b) the contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament. (c) depolymerization of kinetochore microtubules. (d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes. Which of the following will show simple cell division? (a) Microspore mother cells (b) Megaspore mother cells (c) Archesporial cells (d) All of the above. In Meiosis, (a) division of nucleus twice but DNA replicates only once. (b) division of nucleus twice and DNA replicates twice. (c) division of nucleus once and replication of DNA is also once. (d) division of nucleus once and DNA - replication is twice. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are (a) genetically similar (b) genetically different (c) anucleate (d) multinucleate Number of bivalents are 8 in prophase I. What is the number of chromosomes during anaphase II ? (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 13 (d) 32 In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to (a) segregation, independent assortment and crossing over. (b) segregation and crossing over. (c) independent assortment and crossing over. (d) segregation and independent assortment. The separation of two chromatids of each chromosome at early anaphase is initiated by (a) the interaction of centromere with the chromosomal fibres. (b) the elongation of metaphasic spindle. (c) the force of repulsion between the divided kinetochores. (d) All of the above. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption (a) once it has entered the S phase. (b) once it has entered the G2 phase. (c) at any time during cell division activity. (d) none of the above Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres. (a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II (c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and nuclear membranes form. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in (a) prophase (b) interphase (c) metaphase (d) S phase

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At which stage, the homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion, but are yet held by chiasmata ? (a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis because (a) crossing over does not occur. (b) karyokinesis can not occur. (c) chromosomes do not replicate. (d) not all of the chromosomes can form homologous pairs. Crossing over (a) is important in genetic recombination. (b) makes a cell become cancerous. (c) is a key process that occurs during mitosis. (d) is an important mechanism of chromosome repair. It is important that the centromere not divide till the end of metaphase because it (a) is connected with nuclear membrane. (b) contains genes that control prophase. (c) holds the replicated DNA molecules together. (d) produces spindle fibres. Which of the following does not lead to genetic variability? (a) Random fertilization. (b) Crossing over during meiosis. (c) Division of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis. (d) Orientation of chromosomes during metaphase I of meiosis. Which of the following carry the same genetic information? (a) Sister chromatids (b) X and Y chromosomes (c) All autosomes (d) Homologous chromosomes 'X' ensures the production of 'Y' phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilization restores the 'Z' phase. Identify X, Y and Z. (a) X- Mitosis, Y - haploid, Z - haploid (b) X- Mitosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid (c) X- Meiosis, Y - haploid, Z - diploid (d) X- Meiosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid Which of the following is responsible for the formation of the new cell wall and also represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells? (a) Cell plate (b) Cell inclusion (c) Cell membrane (d) None of the above The following events occur during the process of meiosis. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence. I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes (a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, I (c) III, II, I, IV (d) IV, I, II, III

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

In a fully turgid cell (a) ys will be negative and yp will be positive. (b) yp will be negative and ys will be positive. (c) Both yp and ys will be positive. (d) Both ys and yp will be negative. Which of the following pairs of the cell structures are important for determining the movement of molecules in or out of the plant cell? (a) Tonoplast + Vacuolar membrane (b) Tonoplast + Cell membrane (c) Cell wall + Cell membrane (d) Cell wall + Tonoplasts The process in which water moves out of the cell and the cell membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell wall is known as (a) diffusion (b) osmosis (c) plasmolysis (d) bulk flow Phenomenon of plasmolysis occurs when (a) cells are kept in hypertonic solution. (b) cells are kept in hypotonic solution. (c) cells are kept in hypotonic solution. (d) none of the above. When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes (a) flaccid and its TP becomes zero. (b) turgid and its TP becomes zero. (c) turgid and TP becomes equal to OP. (d) flaccid and DPD becomes zero. Seed increase in its volume by the absorption of water through (a) osmosis (b) diffusion (c) imbibition (d) plasmolysis The process by which water is absorbed by solids like colloids causing them to increase in volume is called _______. (a) osmosis (b) plasmolysis (c) imbibition (d) diffusion

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Chapter

Transport in Plants

A cell swells up when kept in (a) hypotonic solution (b) hypertonic solution (c) isotonic solution (d) any of the three Bulk flow of substances over the longer distances through the vascular tissue is called (a) simple diffusion (b) facilitated diffusion (c) active transport (d) translocation Movement that is aided by cytoplasmic streaming and occurs from cell to cell through plasmodesmata is called ________. (a) apoplast (b) symplast (c) active transport (d) translocation Casparian strip is made up of (a) lignin (b) pectin (c) suberin (d) cellulose At which cell layer, water movement through the apoplast pathway is restricted and is facilitated towards symplast pathway? (a) Cortex (b) Pericycle (c) Epidermis (d) Endodermis Which of the following organism helps in the absorption of water and mineral ions from the soil? (a) Nostoc (b) Anabaena (c) Mycorrhiza (d) Spirullina A pressure that is responsible for pushing up water to small height in the stem is called (a) positive root pressure (b) turgor pressure (c) pressure gradient (d) negative root pressure Guttation is loss of impure water which is the result of (a) osmosis (b) diffusion (c) root pressure (d) transpiration Which of the following is the most acceptable theory for movement of water through plants? (a) Cohesion theory (b) Passive transport (c) Root pressure (d) Capillarity The force responsible for upward conduction of water against gravity comes from _______.

Transport in Plants

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(a) transpiration (b) translocation (c) respiration (d) photosynthesis Guard cells help in (a) protection against grazing (b) transpiration (c) guttation (d) fighting against infection Which of the following wall of guard cells is thick? (a) Side wall (b) Middle wall (c) Inner (d) Outer When a root absorbes minerals from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration, and need energy then this type of absorption is called (a) passive absorption (b) facilitated diffusion (c) active absorption (d) osmosis In root endodermis there is one way active transport of ions because of presence of (a) pericycle (b) suberin layer (c) cortex (d) cellulosic layer Sinks are related to (a) transport of minerals (b) stomata (c) hydathodes (d) phytochrome Translocation of food in flowering plants occurs in the form of (a) starch (b) glyceraldehyde (c) glucose (d) sucrose During fruit development, photosynthesizing leaves would be the __________ and the fruit would be __________ (a) sink, sink (b) source, source (c) sink, source (d) source, sink Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place in (a) xylem (b) phloem (c) parenchyma (d) cambium _______is mainly water and sucrose, but other sugars, hormones and amino acids are also _______ through phloem. (a) xylem sap, loaded (b) phloem sap, translocated (c) xylem sap, translocated (d) phloem sap, loaded The hypothesis accepted for the translocation of sugar from source to sink is__________. (a) pressure gradient (b) pressure flow hypothesis (c) mass flow hypothesis (d) both (b) and (c) The process of loading at the source produces a _________. condition in the phloem. (a) hypertonic (b) isotonic (c) hypotonic (d) hydroponic

29. Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the phloem by the process of (a) facilitated diffusion (b) acute transport (c) simple diffusion (d) osmosis 30. Phloem tissue is composed of sieve tube cells, which form long columns with holes in their end walls called ______. (a) tracheids (b) sieve elements (c) sieve plate (d) companion cell

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 31. Find out the incorrect statements. (a) The process of plasmolysis is usually irreversible. (b) The pressure exerted by the protoplasts due to entry of water against the rigid walls is called yp. (c) The T.P. is responsible for enlargement and extension growth of cells. (d) Plant cells swell in hypotonic solutions. 32. Which of the following the statements regarding mycorrhizae is incorrect? (a) Mycorrhizal fungi form a network around the young root and they penetrate the root cells. (b) Mycorrhizae helps the plant to absorb water and minerals. (c) Root provides sugar and nitrogenous organic compounds to the mycorrhizae. (d) Pinus seed can germinate and establish without mycorrhizae. 33. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding stomata? (a) It helps in exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the leaf. (b) It is open in the day time and close during the night. (c) Opening or closing of the stomata is a change in the turgidity of the guard cells. (d) The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the stomatal aperture is thin and rigid. 34. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Unlike water, all minerals cannot be passively absorbed by roots. (b) Most of the minerals enter the root by active transport. (c) Ions are absorbed from soil by both passive and active transport. (d) All of the above 35. Which of the following statements is/are not incorrect? (i) Water and minerals, and food are generally moved by a mass or bulk flow system. (ii) Bulk flow can be achieved either through a positive hydrostatic pressure gradient or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient. (iii) The bulk movement of substances through the conducting tissues of plants is called translocation.

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(iv) Xylem translocates organic and inorganic solutes, mainly from roots to the aerial parts of the plants. (v) Phloem translocates water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones, from the leaves to other parts of the plants. (a) (ii), (iii) and (v) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (v) Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) The apoplastic movement of water occurs exclusively through the cell wall without crossing any membranes. (ii) The apoplastic movement occurs from cell to cell through the plasmodesmata. (iii) Endodermis is impervious to water because of a band of suberised matrix. (iv) Symplastic movement may be aided by cytoplasmic streaming which occurs in Hydrilla leaf and chloroplast. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) Which of the following factors affect transpiration? (i) Number and distribution of stomata. (ii) Percent of open stomata. (iii) Water status of the plant. (iv) Canopy structure. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Which of the following statements, (i -v) regarding transpiration is/are correct? (i) It creates transpiration pull for absorption and transport of plants. (ii) It supplies water for photosynthesis. (iii) It transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plants. (iv) It heats leaf surfaces, sometimes 10 to 15 degrees. (v) It maintains the shape and structure of the plants by keeping cells turgid. (a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) All The following statements are associated with translocation of mineral ions. (i) Mineral ions are slowly remobilised. (ii) Younger leaves export most of their minerals content to older leaves. (iii) Elements most readily mobilised are P, S, N and K. (iv) Some elements that are structural components like calcium are not remobilised. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 40. Assertion : In symport both molecules cross the membrane in the same direction at the same time. Reason : In antiport both molecules move in the opposite direction. 41. Assertion : More is the number of solute molecules, the lower is y w . Reason : Presence of solute particles reduces the free energy of water and decreases the water potential. 42. Assertion : Osmosis is a special type of diffusion through a semipermeable membrane. Reason : The net rate and direction of osmosis depends upon the pressure gradient. 43. Assertion : Stomata are usually open in the day time and close during the night. Reason : The opening or closing of stomata is due to the change in the turgidity of the guard cells. 44. Assertion : Cohesion, adhesion and surface tension give high tensile strength to water. Reason : Capillarity is aided by small diameter of the tracheary elements. 45. Assertion : Ions are absorbed from the soil only byactive transport. Reason : The proteins present in the membranes of root hair cells passively pump ions from the soil into the cytoplasm of the epidermal cells.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 46. Match column-I with column-II and find out the correct option from the codes given below. Column - I

Column - II

A . Isotonic

Hypotonic

II.

Hypertonic

III. Solution is more dilute than the cytoplasm

Plas mo lys is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

External s olution is more concentrated Shrinkage of protoplasm

Two s olutions h ave the s ame os molarity

A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I

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Transport in Plants

47. Match the name of the activities given under column-I with the description of activity given under column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Cohesion I. The ability to rise in their tubes. B. Adhesion II. Loss of water vapour from plant parts. C. Tensile strength III. Mutual attraction between water molecules D. Capillarity IV. Attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces V. An ability to resist a pulling force. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I (d) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III 48. Match the name of the activities given under column-I with the description of activity given under column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A.

Transpiration

Guttation

Exudation

Anaerobic respiration in yeast II. Active absorption of water

III. Loss of water vapour from plant parts D. Fermentation IV. Loss of liquid water from leaves V. Loss of water from injured plant parts (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I (d) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III 49. Match column-I with column-II and find out the correct answer from the code given below. Column-I Column -II A. Diffusion I. Hydrophilic substances B. Osmosis II. Shrinkage of protoplasm C. Imbibition III. Semipermeable membrane D. Plasmolysis IV. Free movement of ions and gases (a) A – II; B – I; C –IV; D – III (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 50. In the given figure, chamber A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane. Study the given figure and choose the right option.

Semipermeable membrane (a)

Chamber A has higher water potential and water will move from A to B. (b) Chamber B has lower solute potential and water will move from A to B. (c) Chamber A has higher solute potential and water will move from B to A. (d) Chamber B has lower water potential and water will move from B to A. 51. Study the experiment shown below : X Stands Beaker

Thistle funnel Y Sugar solution Semipermeable membrane Pure water

After a few days, which of the following will have occured ? (a) A rise in level X and Y (b) A drop in level X and level Y (c) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y (d) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y 52. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E in the given figure of water movement in the leaf.

C A B

Diffusion into surrounding air

(a)

A - Tracheids, B - Phloem, C - Mesophyll, D - Stomatal pore, E - Guard cell (b) A - Phloem, B - Xylem, C - Palisade, D - Guard Cell, E - Water pore (c) A - Xylem, B - Phloem, C - Palisade, D - Guard cell, E - Stomatal pore (d) A - Phloem, B - Xylem, C - Mesophyll cell, D - guard cell, E - Water pore 53. Based on Munch’s pressure-flow hypothesis shown in the given figure which of the following conditions would increase the rate of translocation?

56 .

57. Sieve-tube elements

58. Companion sink (root cell) cell

(a) An increase in the humidity in the outside air. (b) A decrease in phloem unloading at the sink. (c) An increase in sucrose production at the source. (d) A decrease in photosynthesis. 54. The given figure represents symplastic and apoplastic pathways of water & ion absorption & movement in roots. Few parts are marked as A, B, C & D. At the endodermis, water movement through the apoplast pathway is obstructed by which part (marked as A, B, C & D)? 59.

60. (a) (c)

A C

(b) B (d) D

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 55. Cell A and cell B are adjacent plant cells. In cell A, ys = – 20 bars and yp = 8 bars. In cell B, ys = – 12 bars and yp = 2 bars. Then

(a) water moves from cell A to cell B. (b) there is no movement of water between cell A and cell B. (c) water moves from cell B to cell A. (d) equal amount of water is simultaneously exchanged between cell A and cell B. A plant cell placed in pure water will (a) expand until the osmotic potential or solute potential reaches that of water. (b) becomes more turgid until the pressure potential of cell reaches its osmotic potential. (c) become more turgid until osmotic potential reaches that of pure water. (d) becomes less turgid until the osmotic potential reaches that of pure water. A boy is studying transport of a certain type of molecules into cell. He finds that transport slows down when the cells are poisoned with a chemical that inhibits energy production. Under normal circumstances the molecules studied by the boy is probably transported by (a) simple diffusion (b) osmosis (c) active transport (d) facilitated diffusion Osmosis is a form of diffusion in which (a) the solvent moves through a semipermeable membrane from its region of higher chemical potential to its region of lower chemical potential. (b) the solvent moves through a semipermeable membrane from its region of lower chemical potential to its region of higher chemical potential. (c) the solute moves through a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration. (d) the solute moves through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower concentration to higher concentration. Water will move from its region of higher chemical potential to its region of lower chemical potential until (a) equilibrium is reached. (b) amount of both solvent and solute in both regions become equal. (c) solvent amount in both regions become equal. (d) solute amount in both regions become equal. Read the given statement and answer the question : “Osmosis is the diffusion of a solution of a weaker concentration when both are separated by semipermeable membrane”. What is the error in the statement ? (a) The movement of solvent molecule is not specified. (b) There is no mention of DPD. (c) Behaviour of semipermeable membrane is not specified. (d) The exact concentration of solutions are not indicated.

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Transport in Plants 61. The net direction and rate of osmosis depends on both the ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. (a) X - Solute; Y - Solvent (b) X - Pressure potential; Y - Solute potential (c) X - Water potential; Y - Pressure gradient (d) X - Pressure gradient; Y - Concentration gradient 62. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle because (a) salt inhibits reproduction of bacteria. (b) they become plasmolysed and death occurs. (c) nutrients in pickle cannot support life. (d) enough light is not available for photosynthesis. 63. A cell is said to be flaccid when (a) there is no net flow of water towards the inside or outside. (b) the external solution balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm. (c) water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are in equilibrium. (d) the external solution is more dilute than the cytoplasm. 64. Process of imbibition results in (a) increase in the volume of imbibant but without development of pressure. (b) decrease in the volume of imbibant and development of pressure. (c) no change in volume of imbibant but pressure develops. (d) increases in volume of imbibant and development of pressure. 65. Seeds when soaked in water, they imbibe because of (a) OP inside the seed is low. (b) OP of water is high. (c) DPD of seed is very much low. (d) water potential gradient between the seed coat and water. 66. A bottle filled with previously moistened mustard seeds and water was screw capped tightly and kept in a corner. It blew up suddenly after about half an hour. The phenomenon involved in this is (a) diffusion (b) imbibition (c) osmosis (d) D.P.D. 67. Dry wooden stakes, if driven into a small crack in a rock and then soaked, can develop enough pressure to split the rock. Such a pressure is built up through the phenomenon of (a) imbibition (b) transpiration (c) turgor pressure (d) plasmolysis 68. A boy has taken fresh twig from a tree and then he placed it into a coloured water. After a few hours he cut the surface of the twig and examine it with a magnifying glass to study the path of water movement. This experiment demonstrates that movement of water occurs through

101

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) sieve tube (d) casparian strip The movement of water from one cell of the cortex to the adjacent one in roots is due to (a) water potential gradient. (b) chemical potential gradient. (c) turgor pressure. (d) mass flow. ‘X’ breaks the continuity of the ‘Y’ pathway and forces water and solutes to cross the endodermis by passing through the plasma membrane. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. (a) X - Suberin; Y - Tonoplast (b) X - Suberin; Y - Symplast (c) X - Casparian strip ; Y - Tonoplast (d) X - Casparian strip ; Y - Apoplast The path of water from soil upto secondary xylem is (a) Soil ® Root hair cell wall ® Cortex ® Endodermis ® Pericycle ® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem (b) Metaxylem ® Protoxylem ® Cortex ® Soil ® Root hair (c) Cortex ® Root hair ® Endodermis ® Pericycle ® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem (d) Pericycle ® Soil ® Root hair ® Cortex ® Endodermis ® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem A Botanist discovered a mutant plant that was unable to produce materials that form casparian strip. This plant would (a) unable to transport water or solutes to the leaves. (b) unable to use its sugar as a sugar sink. (c) able to exert greater root pressure than the normal plant. (d) unable to control amounts of water and solutes it absorbs. Which of the following is correct regarding guttation? (a) It occurs through stomata. (b) It occurs through hydathodes. (c) It occurs mostly during night and early morning. (d) Both (b) and (c) Which one of the following is not related to guttation? (a) Water is given out in the form of droplets. (b) Water given out is impure. (c) Water is given out during daytime. (d) Guttation is a process of universal occurrence. Which of the following compound is used to study water loss from a leaf and turns colour on absorbing water? (a) Calcium chloride (b) Magnesium chloride (c) Cobalt chloride (d) Sodium chloride Stomata in angiosperms open and close due to (a) their genetic constitution. (b) effect of hormone. (c) changes of turgor pressure in guard cells. (d) pressure of gases inside the leaves.

77. Stomata closes because (a) guard cells lose turgidity and becomes flaccid (b) of increased turgidity of the guard cells brought about by exposure to light. (c) O.P. of the guard cell increases (d) of the movement of water from neighbouring cells into guard cells. 78. Arrange the following events in a correct order that explains the mass flow of materials in the phloem? (i) Water diffuses into the sieve tube elements. (ii) Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis. (iii) Solutes are actively transported into the sieve elements. (iv) Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf. (v) Sugar moves down the stem. (a) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i) – (v) (b) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (v) (c) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) (d) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii) – (v) 79. If a stem is girdled, (a) root dies first. (b) shoot dies first. (c) both die together. (d) none of the above. 80. Stomata opens when (a) guard cells swell due to a decrease in their water potential. (b) guard cells swell up due to an increase in their water potential. (c) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions. (d) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to influx of hydrogen ions (protons).

Biology 81. Transpiration facilitates (a) electrolyte balance (b) absorption of water by roots (c) opening of stomata (d) excretion of minerals. 82. Which of the following will affect the active uptake of water? (a) Transpirational power of the root hairs. (b) Typical tissue organization. (c) Tension due to transpiration. (d) Osmotic concentration of the cell sap of the leaves. 83. In part A of a plant, sugars are actively transported into the phloem tissue. In part B, sugars are actively transported out of the phloem. Which way will the phloem sap move under these conditions? (a) From A to B. (b) From B to A. (c) First from A to B; then, once the pressure builds up, from B to A. (d) First from B to A; then, once the pressure builds up, from A to B. 84. If the external solutions balance the osmotic pressure of cytoplasm, it is said to be (a) isotonic (b) hypotonic (c) atomic (d) hypertonic

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102

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Hydroponics refers to the plant development (a) without soil. (b) in saline soil. (c) in water without soil. (d) without soil with alkaline pH. Which of the following scientist for the first time demonstrated the experiment on hydroponics? (a) Von sachs (b) Arnon (c) Knop (d) Skoog More than ‘X’ elements of the ‘Y’ discovered so far are found in different plants. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. (a) X - 0; Y - 110 (b) X - 80; Y - 105 (c) X- 60; Y - 105 (d) X- 70; Y - 115 The essential elements which are required by plants in large amounts are called________ and those required in very small amount by the plants are called_________. (a) micronutrients, macronutrients (b) bulky elements, trace elements (c) macronutrients, micronutrients (d) trace elements, bulky elements The amount of trace elements per kg dry matter is (a) 10 m mole (b) above 10 m mole (c) less than 10 m mole (d) 100 m mole The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as (a) binder of cell structure. (b) co-factors of enzymes. (c) building blocks of important amino acids. (d) constituent of hormones. Boron in green plants assists in (a) sugar transport (b) activation of enzymes (c) acting as enzyme cofactor (d) photosynthesis Which of the following element activate an enzyme, nitrogenase during nitrogen metabolism?

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Chapter

Mineral Nutrition

(b) Mg2+ (a) SO42– (c) K+ (d) Mo _________ is an constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll and helps to maintain the ribosome structure. (a) Manganese (b) Magnesium (c) Molybdenum (d) Copper Which of the following essential element is required for photochemical reaction involved in photolysis of water? (a) Cu2+ (b) Cl – 2+ (c) Zn (d) Mg2+ Which of the following elements are constituents of protein? (a) Nitrogen and phosphorus (b) Nitrogen and chlorine (c) Phosphorus and boron (d) Chlorine and potassium Which of the following elements in plants are relatively immobile and are a part of the structural component of the cell? (a) Sulphur and calcium (b) Sulphur and potassium (c) Calcium and magnesium (d) Potassium and magnesium Which of the following element is necessary in plants for protein synthesis and also it is a constituent of hormones and many of the vitamins? (a) Calcium (b) Phosphorus (c) Nitrogen (d) Magnesium Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral nutrition? (a) Necrosis (b) Chlorosis (c) Etiolation (d) Shortening of internodes Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces the dry weight of tissues by about _______ is considered toxic. (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%

16.

17.

18.

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20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

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26.

The process by which mineral is absorbed is called (a) passive absorption (b) active absorption (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these Denitrification is carried out by (a) Nitrosomonas (b) Pseudomonas (c) Nitrobacter (d) Nitrococcus The bond in molecular nitrogen (N2) is difficult to break, because it is a (a) double ionic bond. (b) quadraplex hydrogen bond. (c) triple covalent bond. (d) triple ionic bond. Which of the following represents the abiotic mode to convert nitrogen to nitrogen oxides into the soil? (a) Lightening (b) Temperature (c) Ammonification (d) Nitrification Conversion of N º N to NH3 occurs in plant cell by (a) free-living bacteria (b) symbiotic bacteria (c) anaerobic microbes (d) enzyme The enzyme _______ which is capable of nitrogen reduction is present exclusively in prokaryotes. Such microbes are called_____. (a) hydrogenase, N2-fixers (b) nitrogenase, N2-fixers (c) hydrogenase, aerobic microbes (d) nitrogenase, aerobic microbes Frankia produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of (a) leguminous plants (b) n o n - l e g u m i n o u s plants (c) Cycas (d) monocot Which one of the following is free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer ? (a) Beijernickia (b) Rhodospirillum (c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter The nodule in a plant root where nitrogen fixing bacteria live forms from cells of the (a) epidermis (b) cortex (c) endodermis (d) vascular cylinder Which of the following plants will enrich the soil with nitrogen? (a) Corn (b) Alfalfa (c) Wheat grass (d) Beets Leghaemoglobin helps in (a) transport of food in plant. (b) nitrogen fixation. (c) protecting nitrogenase from O2. (d) nodule formation.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Pigment present in the root nodules of legume is (a) chlorophyll-c (b) fucoxanthin (c) phycoerythrin (d) leghaemoglobin The primary amino acid from which other 17 amino acids are formed through the process of transamination is (a) glycine (b) aspartic acid (c) glutamic acid (d) arachidonic acid Asparagine and glutamine are the two most important (a) amino acid (b) amides (c) imino acid (d) proteins Nitrogen fixation is a process of (a) converting nitrogen in the air to form a usable form by plants. (b) recycling nitrogen from organic matter in the soil. (c) absorbing nitrogen from the soil. (d) conversion of NO3 to N2 .

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 31.

32.

33.

34.

Which of the following statements is not correct about macronutrients? (a) They are present in plant tissues in excess of 100 m mole per kg of dry matter. (b) They include C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca, Mg. (c) Some elements attained from CO2 and H2O while the others are absorbed from the soil. (d) C, H & O are mainly obtained from CO2 and H2O. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) Soil supplies minerals, harbours N2-fixing bacteria and other microbes, holds water, supplies O2 to root at acts as matrix that stabilises the plant. (b) Both macro and micronutrients forms component of fertilizers and are applied as per need. (c) Weathering and breaking down of rock enrich the soil with dissolved ions and inorganic salts. (d) Denitrification is not done by bacteria Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus. Which of the following statements about Rhizobium legume nodule formation is not correct ? (a) Rhizobium can only fix nitrogen after it becomes a bacteroid within a root cortex cell. (b) Rhizobium induces invagination of root hairs. (c) Within an infection thread, Rhizobium is still extracellular to the plant. (d) The infection thread can fuse with any root cell of an appropriate legume species. Which of the following statements about nitrification is not correct ? (a) Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate. (b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus conver t ammonium ions to nitrite.

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Biology

104

Mineral Nutrition

35.

36.

37.

38.

(c) Nitrification reactions are energy-producing (exergonic) reactions. (d) Heterotrophic plants are more directly dependent on the nitrifying bacteria for usable nitrogen than autotrophic plants. Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation is correct ? (i) Nitrogenase is only catalytic under anaerobic conditions. (ii) The energy for nitrogen fixation can be provided by either photosynthesis or respiration. (iii) In nitrogen fixation, nitrogen is reduced by the addition of three successive pairs of hydrogen atoms. (iv) Most nitrogen fixing microbes are aerobic. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (d) All of the above Read the following statement and answer the question Infected thread carries the bacteria to the inner ‘X’ cells. The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteroids and cause inner ‘X’ and ‘Y’ cells to divide. Division and growth of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ cells lead to nodule formation. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. (a) X-pericycle, Y - cortical (b) X - cortical, Y - pericycle (c) X - endodermis, Y - cortical (d) X - epidermis, Y -pericycle Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Magnesium competes with iron and manganese for uptake and with iron for binding with enzymes. (ii) Magnesium inhibit calcium translocation in shoot apex. (iii) Excess of manganese may induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium. (iv) Symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be the deficiency symptoms of iron, magnesium and calcium. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) How many of the given statements are correct? (i) The deficiency of any element can cause multiple symptoms. (ii) Same symptoms may be caused by the deficiency of one or several different elements. (iii) The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical concentration. (iv) Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll due to deficiency of N, K, Mg, Fe, S, Mn, Zn Mo. (v) Different plants respond differently to the deficiency of the same element.

105

39.

40.

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42.

(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (i) Conversion of organic nitrogen to NH4+ by soil microbes is called ammonification. (ii) Ammonia is first oxidized to nitrite by Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus. (iii) The nitrite is further oxidized to nitrate with the help of the bacterium Thiobacillus. (iv) In leaves, nitrate is reduced to form ammonia that finally forms the –NH2 group of amino acids. (v) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus and Nitrobacter are Chemoautotrophs. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) Which of the following statements are incorrect ? (i) The morphological changes are indicative of certain element deficiencies and are called deficiency symptoms. (ii) The part of plants that show the deficiency symptoms depend on the mobility of the element in the plant. (iii) Deficiency symptoms appear first in the young tissues whenever the element are relatively mobile. (iv) The deficiency symptoms of Cl, Z, N, O, are visible first in the senescent leaves. Of the above statements. (a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the following question. (i) Nitrogen is very essential for the sustenance of life. (ii) N2 - fixation requires a strong reducing agent. (iii) N2 - fixation is accomplished with the help of nitrogen fixing microbes, mainly Frankia. (iv) The enzyme nitrogenase which plays an important role in biological N2 fixation is very sensitive to carbon dioxide. (v) The energy, ATP, required is provided by the respiration of the host cells. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (v) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v) Which of the following statements are correct ? (i) Solution culture/hydroponics contains all essential minerals except one, the usefulness of which is to be determined. (ii) Na, Si, Co and selenium are beneficial element required by higher plants. (iii) Zn is the activator of nitrogenases while Mo is the

43.

44.

45.

46.

activator of alcohol dehydrogenase. (iv) Zn is needed for auxin synthesis. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) (c) All of these (d) None of these Ion transport in root occurs (i) passively through channels. (ii) actively through channels. (iii) actively through carriers. (iv) through both symplast and apoplast. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) Refer the given statements and answer the question. (i) The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction. (ii) The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element. (iii) The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant. The above statements apply to (a) Criteria for hydroponics (b) Criteria for essentiality (c) Role of micronutrients (d) Role of macronutrients Which of the following mineral is associated with the characters/functions given below ? (i) Helps in formation of middle lamella. (ii) Needed in mitotic spindle formation. (iii) Accumulates in older leaves. (iv) Involves in normal functioning of the cell membranes. (v) Activate certain enzymes. (vi) Plays an important role in regulating metabolic activities. (a) K+ (b) Fe3+ – (d) Ca2+ (c) NO3 The functions given below are performed by which of the following mineral ? (i) An important constituent of proteins involved in ETS. (ii) Activator of catalase. (iii) Essential for chlorophyll synthesis. (a) N (b) Mg (c) Fe (d) Cd

47.

48.

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50.

51.

Assertion : Deficiency of sulphur causes chlorosis in plants. Reason : Sulphur is a constituent of chlorophyll, protein and nucleic acids. Assertion : Macromtrients are generally present in plant tissues in large amounts (in excess of 10 mmole kg-1 of dry matter) Reason : Macronutrient includes iron manganese copper, molybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine and nickel Assertion : Nitrogen is the essential nutrient element requird by plants in the greatest amount. Reason : Nitrogen is absorbed mainly as NO3- though some are also taken up NO2– or NH4+ Assertion : Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing of leaves. Reason : This symptom is caused by the deficiency of elements N,K, Mg, S, Fe and Mo. Assertion :Ammonia is first oxidized to nitrate by the bacteria Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus. Reason : These nitryfying Bacteria are chemoheterotrophs .

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 52. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column -II (Nutrients) (Functions) A. Mg2+ I. Activator of dehydrogenase 2+ B. Zn II. Activator for both Ru BP carboxylaseoxygenase and PEP are C. K+ III. Required for all Phosphorylation reactions – IV. Plays an important role D. H2PO4 in opening and closing of stomata (a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (b) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II (d) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV 53. Match the items given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and choose the correct answer. Column-I Column-II A. Free living aerobic I. Anabaena and Nostoc nitrogen fixers B. Anaerobic nitrogen II. Pseudomonas and fixers Thiobacillus C. Nitrogen fixing III. Nitrosomonas and cyanobacteria Nitrococcus

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Mineral Nutrition D.

107

Denitrifying bacteria IV.

Azotobacter and Beijernickia E. Nitrifying bacteria. V. Rhodospirillum (a) A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – III (b) A – V, B – IV, C – I, D – III, E – II (c) A – IV, B – V, C – II, D – III, E – I (d) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II, E – V 54. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Manganese I. Component of various enzymes and participate in nitrogen metabolism. B. Zinc II. Required for pollen germination and carbohydrate translocation C. Molybdenum III. Helps in splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis D. Boron IV. Needed in the synthesis of auxin (a) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – IV (b) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV (c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 55. Match the column-I containing minerals with the functions given in column-II and choose the correct combination given. Column-I (Minerals)

C. Magnesium III. Nitrate reductase D. Molybdenum IV. Cysteine (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (b) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (c) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (d) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III 57. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I

58.

59.

Column-II (Functions)

Stomatal opening

II. Constituent of cell membrane

III. Photolysis of water

IV. Free ion

60.

V. Component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase A (a) I, IV (b) I, V (c) I , V

B V IV IV

C II III II

D III II III

(d) IV I III II, V 56. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct combination from the option given below. Column -I Column-II A. Zinc I. Chlorophyll B. Sulphur II. IAA

61.

Column-II

Found in some amino acids

II.

All phosphorylation reaction

C. D.

I Mn

III. Not important for plants IV. Required for photolysis of water (a) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (d) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV Which of the following bacteria is correctly matched with their function ? A. Nitrosomonas – Nitrite to nitrate B. Thiobacillus – Dentrification C. Nostoc – Free-living nitrogen-fixer D. Azotobacter – Anaerobic nitrogen-fixer (a) A and B (b) C and D (c) B and C (d) B and D Which of the following is the mismatched pair? Mineral elements Form that is absorbed by plant (a) Nitrogen NO3– (b) Phosphorus H2PO4– (c) Sulphur H2SO4 (d) Iron Fe3+ Which of the following is an incorrect match of essential element and function? (a) Manganese - Structural component of chlorophyll. (b) Calcium - Component of the middle lamella. (c) Zinc - Enzyme activator. (d) Iron - Component of ferredoxin. Find the incorrectly matched pair. (a) Rhizobium ® Alfalfa (b) Frankia ® Alnus (c) Rhodospirillum ® Aerobic (d) Bacillus ® Free -living

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 62. The given figure shows a typical set up with their parts marked as A, B and C. Identify A, B and C and determine which experiment is demonstrated in the given figure?

Nutrient solution is sent to the elevated end of the tube from the reservoir by X and it flows back to the reservoir due to Y . Identify X and Y. (a) pump, pump (b) gravity, gravity (c) pump, gravity (d) gravity, pump 64. Refer the figure given below and select the option which gives correct labelling for all the four blanks A, B, C and D. A

A B C D (a) Funnel for Aerating Nutrient Hydroponics adding water tube solution and nutrients (b) Funnel for Aerating Nutrient Aeroponics adding water tube solution only (c) Funnel for Aerating Water Tissue adding tube culture nutrients only (d) Funnel for Aerating Water Hydroponics adding water tube and nutrients 63. The given diagram shows hydroponic/soilless plant production. Plants are grown in a tube or trough placed on a slight incline. The arrows indicate the direction of flow of nutrient solution.

(a) K (b) NH3 (c) CO2

Ammonification Animal biomass Ammonification Plant biomass

Plant biomass Animal biomass

Denitrification

Plant biomass

Animal biomass

(d) CHO Nitrification

Plant Animal biomass biomass 65. The given diagram shows the development of root nodule in soyabean. Thus structures are marked as A, B, C and D.

D A

Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C & D. (a) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Outer cortex; D-Infection thread containing virus. (b) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Inner cortex and pericycle cells; D-Infection thread containing bacteria (c) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Endodermal cell; C-Inner

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endodermis; D-Infection thread containing virus (d) A-Nitrosomonas bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Inner cortex and pericyele cells; D-Infection thread containing bacteria.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

Plants absorb nitrogen from soil mainly in the form of (a) N2-gas (b) nitric acid (c) nitrite (d) nitrate Which of the following element is involved in plants for protein synthesis? (a) Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Iron (d) Zinc An important essential element which is required by plants in the greatest amount is (a) nitrogen (b) iron (c) sulphur (d) copper The minerals involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA, for maintenance of the turgidity of cells and for the activation of the enzyme catalase are respectively (a) potassium, magnesium, chlorine (b) sulphur, potassium, iron (c) phosphorus, potassium, chlorine (d) magnesium, potassium, iron The term critical concentration means (a) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase. (b) essential element concentration below which the plant growth is retarded. (c) essential element concentration above which the plant growth is stunted. (d) non-essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded. Which one of these do plants require for the formation of adenosine triphosphate? (a) N, Cu (b) N, Ca (c) N, P (d) N, K In an active process, the entry or exit of ions to and from the symplast requires (a) ATP (b) cyclic AMP (c) NADH (d) NADPH A small aquatic plant was put in each of the petridishes X, Y & Z, containing different culture solutions. After six weeks the plant in dish X had the same number of leaves as it had previously & were all small and yellowish. Plant in dish Y had more leaves of normal size and dark green colour. Plants in dish Z had more leaves of normal size but very pale. Which of the following show the element missing in the culture?

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

X Y Z (a) Magnesium Phosphorus Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus Magnesium Nitrogen (c) Phosphorus Nitrogen Magnesium (d) Magnesium Nitrogen Phosphorus Some bacteria such as ‘X’ and ‘Y’ occur in soil which reduce nitrate to nitrogen by the process of ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ (a) ‘X’-Nitrogen, ‘Y’-Pseudomonas, ‘Z’-Ammonification (b) ‘X’-Nitrosomonas, ‘Y’-Thiobacillus, ‘Z’-Ammonification (c) ‘X’-Pseudomonas, ‘Y’-Thiobacillus, ‘Z’-Nitrification (d) ‘X’-Pseudomonas, ‘Y’-Thiobacillus, ‘Z’Dentrification Biological nitrogen fixation is the (a) reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living organisms. (b) oxidation of nitrogen to ammonia by living organism. (c) conversion of nitrogen to ammonia by UV radiation. (d) conversion of ammonia to nitrogen by electrical discharge. All are free-living nitrogen fixers except (a) Azotobacter (b) Beijernickia (c) Anabaena (d) Rhizobium Plant absorbs nitrogen from the soil in the form of (a) ammonia (b) N2 (c) nitrite (d) nitrate Which of the following is an anaerobic N 2 fixing bacterium? (a) Azotobacter (b) Bacillus (c) Rhodospirillum (d) Beijernickia N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16 ATP ® 2NH4 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi The above equation refers to (a) ammonification (b) nitrification (c) nitrogen fixation (d) denitrification Nitrogen fixation by organisms requires conditions that are (a) aerobic (b) anaerobic (c) saturated with sunlight (d) free of water Which of the following bacteria can fix nitrogen for plants such as clover and beans ? (a) Denitrovibri (b) Rhizobium (c) Pseudomonas (d) Nitrobacter At physiological pH, for the formation of ammonium ion, ammonia is (a) protonated (b) deprotonated (c) carbonylated (d) decarbonylated

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

Which of the following expression describes nitrogen fixation? (a) N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3 (b) 2NH+4+ 2O2 + 8e– ® N2 + 4H2O (c) 2NH3 ® N2 + 3H2 (d) 2N2 + glucose ® 2 amino acids A gardner purchases a commercial fertilizer. The label says that it is 10-20-10. This label refers to the (a) percentage of nitrogen, phosphate and potassium. (b) percentage of nitrogen, carbon and oxygen. (c) rate at which nitrogen is released from the fertilizer. (d) ratio of organic to inorganic matter in the fertilizer. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only affects growth of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements shall affect most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport? (a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na (c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen ? (a) Albugo (b) Cystopus (c) Saprolegnia (d) Anabaena Which of the following is a free living aerobic nonphotosynthetic nitrogen-fixer? (a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter (c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc In plant nutrition, elements are classified as major or minor nutrients depending on (a) their availability in the soil. (b) their relative production in the ash obtained after burning the plants. (c) the relative amounts required by the plants. (d) their relative importance in plant growth.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

Minerals are known to enter the plant root by means of a number of mechanisms, including all except one of the following. Which one of the following is a mechanism for moving minerals into roots? (a) Foliar feeding (b) Active transport (c) Proton (H+) pump (d) Cation exchange The most abundant gas in our atmosphere cannot be utilized by plants directly in its atmospheric form and is, therefore, captured by certain bacteria that live symbiotically in the nodules of roots. Identify the gas? (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Neon (d) Hydrogen Legume’s roots have swellings called nodules that (a) produce antibiotics that protect the plant from soil bacteria. (b) provide a steady supply of sugar to the host plant. (c) increases the surface area for water uptake. (d) contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria. In plants a common symptom caused by deficiencies of Cu, K, Ca and Mg is the (a) formation of anthocyanin. (b) bending of leaf tip. (c) poor development of vasculature. (d) appearance of dead necrotic tissues. A boy notices that the young leaves of his tomato plants are very yellow. Deficiency of which of the following nutrient does this suggest ? (a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon (c) Water (d) Iron Which of the following groups contain no species that are able to fix nitrogen ? (a) Cyanobacteria in the ocean and fresh water. (b) Soil bacteria including Rhizobium. (c) Cyanobacteria in lichens. (d) Aerobic bacteria in the genera Bacillus and Pseudomonas.

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Chapter

Photosynthesis

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Photosynthesis is a/an (a) physio-chemical process. (b) physical process. (c) chemical process. (d) energy wasting process. Photosynthesis is important because (a) it is the primary source of food on earth. (b) it is responsible for release of O2 into the atmosphere by green plants. (c) it is responsible for release of water vapour into the atmosphere. (d) both (a) and (b) Half leaf experiment proves that (a) light is essential for photosynthesis. (b) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis. (c) O2 releases during photosynthesis. (d) chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis. One of the earliest experiments on photosynthesis was done in 1770 by Joseph Priestley. He demonstrated that (a) sun is the ultimate source of energy. (b) water is essential for life. (c) plants & animals “restore” the air for each other. (d) chlorophyll captures light energy. Contribution of Ingen-Housz in elucidation of process of photosynthesis is that (a) only green parts of plants exposed to light can convert foul air (CO2) into pure air (O2). (b) green plants convert light energy into chemical energy (c) plants have the capacity to purify foul air. (d) sunlight is the ultimate source of energy for plants and animals. The experiment material used by Van Neil, to prove that O2 comes out from water was studied on (a) Chlorella pyrenoidosa

(b) Cladophora (c) purple & green sulphur bacteria (d) blue green algae Which one represents the correct empirical equation of photosynthesis? (a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 ® 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (b) C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O ® 6CO2 + 12H2O + energy Light

(c)

6CO2 + 6H2O ¾¾¾® 6O2 + C6H12O6 Chlorophyll Light

(d) 6CO2 + 12H2O ¾¾¾® 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O Chlorophyll 8.

How can we separate leaf pigments of any green plant? (a) Column chromatography (b) Paper chromatography (c) Electrophoresis (d) Radio-isotopes 9. What is/are the function(s) of accessory pigments? (a) They enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for photosynthesis. (b) They absorb light and transfer the energy to reaction centre. (c) They protect reaction centre from photo-oxidation. (d) All of the above 10. The light harvesting complex (LHC) is made up of (a) one molecule of Chl a. (b) very few molecules of Chl a. (c) hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins. (d) Chl a + Chl c + protein + DNA. 11. In a plant cell, which of the following pigments participates directly in the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll b (c) Chlorophyll d (d) Carotenoids 12. In PS-I, the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at _____________, while in PS-II the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at ___________.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

(a) P680, P700 (b) P700, P680 (c) P800, P600 (d) P700, P900 An energy diagram for the transfer of electrons in the light reactions of photosynthesis in plants is (a) cyclic photo-phosphorylation (b) Z-band (c) Z-Scheme (d) non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation Electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor which passes them to an electron transport system consisting of (a) phytochromes (b) cytochromes (c) Z-scheme (d) redox potential scale Splitting of water is related with (a) photosystem I (b) photosystem II (c) both (a) and (b) (d) cyclic photo-phosphorylation Correct equation that represents the photolysis of water is (a) 2H2O ® 4H+ + O2 + 4e– (b) H2O ® 4H+ + O2 + 4e– (c) 4H2O ®4H+ + O2 + 4e– (d) 2H2O ®4H+ + 2O2 +2e– The chemiosmotic mechanism mediates (a) ATP synthesis. (b) splitting of water. (c) reduction of NADP+. (d) flow of electrons from PS - II to PS - I ATP synthesis, in photosynthesis involves the (a) establishment of a protein gradient. (b) oxidation of water. (c) reduction of NADP+. (d) flow of electrons. In photosynthesis, protons accumulate in the (a) inner membrane space of mitochondria. (b) matrix of mitochondria. (c) lumen of thylakoid. (d) stroma of thylakoid. The light-driven synthesis of ATP & NADPH, provides energy and reducing power for the (a) conversion of inorganic carbon into organic carbon. (b) fixation of CO2 into trioses. (c) for the production of sugars. (d) all of the above. No. of carbons in the primary CO2 fixation product of C4 plant is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Which was the first CO2 fixation product formed, in the Calvin experiment, using radioactive labelled 14C in green algal?

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

(a) 2-carbon organic compound (b) 3-carbon organic compound (c) 4-carbon organic compound (d) 5-carbon organic compound In Calvin cycle, RuBisCO incorporates CO2 into ribulose, 1, 5-bisphosphate which rapidly splits into (a) 2 molecules of 3-PGA (b) 2 molecules of 2-PGA (c) 3 molecules of 3-PGA (d) 3 molecules of 2-PGA The total requirement of ATP & NADPH for each molecule of CO2 fixed & reduced in photosynthesis in the Calvin cycle is (a) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH (b) 2 ATP & 3 NADPH (c) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH (d) 4 ATP & 3 NADPH Which is the primary CO2 fixation product in C4 plant? (a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (b) Oxaloacetic acid (c) Phosphoenol pyruvate (d) RuBP Site of photosynthesis in C4 plant is (a) mesophyll cells (b) bundle sheath cells (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cytosol The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plant is (a) RuBP (b) phosphoenol pyruvate (c) PEP carboxylase (d) PGA Chloroplast movement is influenced by (a) light exposure (b) dark condition (c) atmospheric condition (d) number ofmesophyll cells Fixation of CO2 molecule through Hatch and Slack pathway requires an enzyme called _________ . (a) PEPcase (b) RuBisCO (c) RuBP carboxylase (d) oxygenase Bundle sheath cells (a) are rich in RuBisCO. (b) are rich in PEP carboxylase. (c) lack RuBisCO. (d) lack both RuBisCO and PEP carboxylase. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of (a) bundle sheath (b) phloem (c) epidermis (d) mesophyll By looking at which internal structure of a plant can you tell whether a plant is C3 or C4? (a) Kranz anatomy (b) Distribution of mesophyll cells (c) Bundle sheath cells only (d) Both (a) and (b) In C4 plants, the process by which C4 acid is converted into C3 acid in the bundle sheath cell is known as (a) carboxylation (b) regeneration (c) reduction (d) decarboxylation

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Photosynthesis 34. A process that creates an important difference between C3 & C4 plants is called____________. (a) Calvin benson cycle (b) photosynthesis (c) photorespiration (d) transpiration 35. Photorespiration is a wasteful process because (a) there is no synthesis of sugars. (b) there is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH. (c) there is no synthesis of phosphoglycerate. (d) both (a) and (b) 36. Photorespiration (a) occurs because oxygen rather than carbon dioxide links to the rubisco enzyme in the Calvin cycle. (b) occurs more in C4 than in C3 plants under identical conditions. (c) describes the uptake of CO2 & the release of oxygen in chloroplasts. (d) All of the above 37. The principle of limiting factors was proposed by

38.

(a) Blackman (b) Hill (c) Arnol (d) Liebig Plant factors affecting photosynthesis include (a) number, age, size, and orientation of leaves, mesophyll cells and chloroplast, internal CO2 conc., the amount of chlorophyll . (b) nature of leaves, size of mesophyll cells and light. (c) mesophyll cells, distribution and temperature. (d) quantity of chlorophyll, size of leaves and CO2.

113

(a)

42.

43.

44.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 39. Which one of the following is incorrect about the activities associated with PS - I and PS - II in non-cyclic photophosphorylation ? (a) Water is oxidised in PS - II, but not in PS - I. (b) Photons (light) are needed to activate both PS - I and PS - II. (c) Photolysis of water, formation of ATP + NADPH + H occur. (d) Production of NADPH + H+ is associated with PS II, but not with PS - I. 40. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Site of photosynthesis is mesophyll cells of chloroplast. (b) In Z-scheme, movement of electrons is uphill in terms of redox potential scale. (c) In Z-scheme of photosynthesis, the electrons flow from H2O to NADP+. (d) ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane. 41. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding pigments?

45.

46.

47.

Pigments are substances that have an ability to absorb light, at specific wavelengths. (b) Chlorophyll b is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis. (c) Leaf pigments can be separated by chromatography. (d) Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Photosystem-I receives electrons from photosystem-II. (b) Photosystem-II receives electrons from photolytic dissociation of water. (c) Formation of NADPH is associated with photosystem -II. (d) Reaction centre of photosystem I is P700. Which among the following sentence is incorrect about light reaction? (a) It is also known as ‘photochemical’ phase. (b) It includes light absorption, water splitting, oxygen release, and the formation of high-energy chemical intermediates. (c) Reaction centre consist of single molecule of chl a but 2 molecules of chl b. (d) The pigments are organised into two discrete photochemical light harvesting complexes (LHC) within PS - I and PS - II. Which one of the following statement correctly describes the cyclic photophosphorylation? (a) Cyclic photophosphorylation has both PS-I and PS-II. (b) Cyclic phosphorylation produces neither ATP nor NADPH + H+. (c) Water is the ultimate source of e – in cyclic phosphorylation. (d) Electrons are cycled in cyclic photophosphorylation. All of the following statements are incorrect for non-cyclic electron transport system, except (a) Electron transport between PS -II to PS-I produces ATP by substrate level phosphorylation. (b) In PS-II, the oxidation of two water molecules produces four electrons, four proteins, & a single O2. (c) Water is oxidized & electrons are released by PS-I. (d) PS - II reduces NADP+ to NADPH. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) H2S, not H2O, is involved in photosynthesis of purple sulphur bacteria. (b) Light and dark reactions are stopped in the absence of light. (c) Calvin cycle occurs in the grana of chloroplast. (d) ATP is pr oduced during ligh t reaction via chemiosmosis. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about RuBisCO?

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

(a) It catalyzes the fixation of CO2. (b) It has oxygenation & carboxylation both activity. (c) It is the most abundant protein on earth. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements given below is incorrect ? (a) The C4 plants respond to higher temperatures while C3 plants have a much lower temperature optimum. (b) Tropical plants have a higher temperature optimum than the plants adapted to temperate climates. (c) Some C3 plants are allowed to grow in CO2 enriched atmosphere that leads to higher yields. (d) Water stress causes the stomata to remain open hence enhancing the CO2 availability. Which one of the following statement is incorrect in relation to photorespiration? (a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants. (b) The RuBP binds with O2 to form one molecule of phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate. (c) There is synthesis of ATP or NADPH. (d) It occurs in daytime only. Which of the following statement best support the fact that photorespiration commonly occurs in C3 plants? (a) C3 plants don’t possess Kranz anatomy. (b) C3 plants have usually high CO2 compensation species. (c) C3 plants are less efficient in photosynthesis. (d) C3 plants are characterized by RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply. Which of the following statements (i-iv) regarding “Splitting of water” is/are correct. (i) It is photolysis of water which provides H+ ions for synthesis of NADPH. (ii) It provides electrons for photophosphorylation & activation of NADP+. (iii) O2 is evolved during this process. (iv) It replenishes O2 consumed by living beings and combustion. (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) All Identify the correct statements for ATP synthase. (i) This enzyme consists of two parts: hydrophobic membrane bound portion called F0 & a portion that sticks out into stroma called F1. (ii) F0 appears to form a channel across the membrane through which proton can pass. (iii) The conformational change in the F1 portion of the complex synthesizes ATP. (iv) The proton motive force that drives the synthesis of ATP is associated with this enzyme. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All of these

53. Why C4 plants are special ? Because, (i) they have a special type of leaf anatomy. (ii) they tolerate higher temperatures. (iii) they show a response to high light intensities. (iv) they lack a process called photorespiration. (v) they have greater productivity of biomass. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these 54. Consider the following statements with respect to photosynthesis and identify the correct statements. (i) The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is PGA. (ii) In C 3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during dark reaction is RuBP. (iii) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of ATP. (iv) Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis comes from water. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

57. 58.

59.

60.

Assertion: C 4 pathway of CO 2 fixation is found in some tropical plants. Reason: In this pathway, CO 2 is fixed by 3C compound. Assertion : Mitochondria helps in photosynthesis Reason : Mitochondria have enzymes for dark reaction. Assertion: Bacterial photosynthesis occurs by utilizing wavelength longer than 700 nm. Reason: Here reaction centre is B-890. Assertion: Six molecules of CO2 and twelve molecules of NADPH+ + H+ and 18 ATP are used to form one hexose molecule. Reason: Light reaction results in the formation of ATP and NADPH2. Assertion : Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some eubacterial species. Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non-cyclic pathway of photosynthesis evolved.

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Photosynthesis 61.

115

Assertion : C4 photosynthetic pathway is more efficient than the C3 pathway. Reason : Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 plants.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 62. Match the scientests given in column-1 with their work, given in column-II & select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Priestley I. Determined the action spectrum of chlorophyll B. Jan Ingenhousz II. Provided evidence that in green parts of plant glucose is made & stored as starch C. Sachs III. Plants purify air only in the presence of light D. Engelmann IV. Demonstrated that photosynthesis is essentially a light-dependent reaction E. Niel V. Revealed the essential role of air in the growth of plants (a)

64.

65.

A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – IV

(b) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – IV (c) 63.

A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – II

66.

(d) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II The given figure shows the graph of light intensity (on xaxis) on the rate of photosynthesis (on y-axis). Few points are marked as A, B, C, D and E.

Match the marked alphabets given in column I with these correct interpretation given in column II. Column - I Column - II A. Limiting factor I. Some factor other than in region A light intensity is becoming the limiting factor B. B represents II. Light is no longer limiting factor C. C represents III. Light intensity D D represents IV. Maximum rate of photosynthesis E. E represents V. Saturation point for light intensity

67.

The correct option is (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV (c) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – III; E – I (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I Match the column-1 with column II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below. Column -I Column -II A. Emerson effect I. C4 cycle B. Hill reaction II. Photolysis C. Calvin cycle III. C3 cycle D. Hatch & Slack cycle IV. Photosystem I & II (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I Which of the following pair is mismatched? (a) Photosystem I – Uses the P700 molecule in its photocenter. (b) Antenna complex – Contains hundreds of pigment molecule. (c) PGA – 3- carbon compound. (d) Dark reaction – Takes place in the grana of the chloroplast. Match the parts given in column I with the events given in column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II A. Grana of chloroplast I. Kreb's cycle B. Stroma of chloroplast II. Light reaction C. Cytoplasm III. Dark reaction D. Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column -I Column -II A. Oxygen evolving I. Pigments complex ferric oxalate B. Proton gradient II. High oxygen concentration C. Absorb light at III. ATP synthesis specific wavelengths. D. Photorespiration IV. Photolysis of water (a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (b) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (c) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I

68.

69.

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? (a) C3 plant – Maize (b) C4 plant – Kranz anatomy (c) Calvin cycle – PGA (d) Hatch and Slack pathway – Oxaloacetic acid Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (a) Sorghum — Kranz anatomy (b) PS - II — P700 (c) Photorespiration — C3 plants (d) PEP carboxylase — Mesophyll cells

72.

The given figure shows the diagramatic representation of the Hatch & Slack pathway few labelling are marked as P, Q and R. Atmospheric CO2

–

HCO3

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 70.

The given figure of calvin cycle shows the carbon assimilation in C3 plants. Choose the correct labelling of the carbohydrate molecule (Marked as I, II and III) involved in the Calvin cycle.

Plasma membrane

Mesophyll cell

Cell wall Phosphoenolpyruvate Regeneration

Fixation

Plasmodesmata

Bundle sheath cell

Transport Transport Fixation by Calvin cycle C4 acid CO 2

C3 acid

(I) Which of the following option shows the correct labeling of P, Q, and R (II)

(III)

(a) C3 acid

Red u ctio n

C4 acid

(b) Fixation

C4 acid

Regen eratio n

Decarbo xylatio n C3 acid

(d) Carb oxylatio n C3 acid

71.

(a)

(I) RuBP

(b)

PGA

(c)

PGA

(II) Triose phosphate RuBP

(III) PGA Triose phosphate RuBP

Triose phosphate (d) RuBP PGA Triose phosphate phosphate The given diagram represents the Calvin cycle. GP(PGA)

RuBP

hexose phosphate

starch

At which stage (inducated by P, Q, R and S)is CO2 incorporated? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

Redu ction

The diagram below represents an experiment with isolated chloroplasts. The chloroplasts were first made acidic by soaking them in a solution at pH 4. After the thylakoid space reached pH 4, the chloroplasts were transferred to a basic solution at pH 8. The chloroplasts are then placed in the dark. Which of these compounds would you expect to be produced?

Q triose phosphate

73.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ATP NAD G3P C6H12O6

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Photosynthesis 74.

117

The diagram given below shows ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.

76. Study the given graph which shows the action spectrum of A. Superimposed on B spectrum of chlorophyll a. Identify A & B in the graph.

Light absorbed

A B

400 500 600 700 Wavelength of light in nanometres (nm)

A (a)

Which option shows the correct labelling of A, B, C and D in the diagram ? (a) A - F1, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (I), D - Photosystem (II) (b) A - F0, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (I), D - Photosystem (II) (c) A - F1, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (II), D - Photosystem (I) (d) A - F0, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (II), D - Photosystem (I) 75.

Rate of respiration

B Action spectrum

(b) Rate of respiration

Absorption

(c)

Action spectrum

Rate of photosynthesis

(d) Rate of photosynthesis

Absorption

77. The given figure shows the diagrammatic representation of a section of chloroplast. Few plants are marked as A, B, C, D & E.

A B C

Given below is the pathway (2-scheme) of light reaction. Identify the blanks indicated by A, B, C and D.

A e – acceptor Light

ADP + iP ATP Electron transport

system

Combination of which parts is responsible for trapping the light energy & also the synthesis of ATP and NADPH? (a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D (c) C, D, E (d) A, D, E 78. Which one of the following correctly identifies X and Y and and their functions in the given figure of chloroplast ?

LHC LHC H2 O → 2e – + 2H + + [O]

X Structure

Y Function

Structure

Function

(a) Grana

Photolysis of water

(b) Grana

CO2 fixation Stroma

Photolysis of water

CO2 fixation

(d) Stroma

CO2 fixation Lamellae

Stroma

Grana

CO2 fixation

Photolysis of water

84. Which of following ratio is correct for the production of one molecule of glucose through 6 rounds of Calvin cycle? CO2 ATP NADPH2 (a) 1 2 2 (b) 6 18 12 (c) 6 12 18 (d) 5 6 9 85. Which of the following combination is correct for C4 plants? Mesophyll (a) PEPcase C4-cycle

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 79. In non-cyclic reactions of photosynthesis, electrons from chlorophyll molecules in photosystem-I are used in the formation of NADPH. What is the source of such electrons? (a)

Light

(b) NADPH (c)

Photosystem-I

(d) Photosystem-II, which splits water molecule 80.

The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why? (a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur. (b) CO2 concentration in night is too high for these reactions to occur. (c) Plants usually open their stomata at night. (d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light reaction.

81. To make 100 molecules of glucose, how many molecules of ATP & NADPH are required? (a)

1800 and 1200 respectively.

(b) 1200 and 1800 respectively. (c)

(b) PEPcase Calvin cycle RuBisCO (c) RuBisCO C4-cycle PEPcase (d) RuBisCO C2-cycle PEPcase

(d) 200 and 600 respectively.

(a)

(b) RuBisCO

(c)

light

(d) ATP + NADPH

83. The correct sequence of Calvin cycle is (a)

Decarboxylation ® Oxidation ® Regeneration

(b) Decarboxylation ® Regeneration ® Oxidation (c)

Carboxylation ® Reduction ® Regeneration

(d) Carboxylation ® Reduction ® Regeneration

C4-cycle C3-cycle C3-cycle

86. In an experiment, the CO2 available to a C4 plant was labelled with a radioactive isotope and the amount of radioactivity in the chloroplast was measured. As photosynthesis preceeded, in which of the following molecules did the radioactivity first appear? (a) Oxaloacetic acid (b) PEP (c) Malic acid (d) RuBP 87. Which of the following plant species have highest photosynthetic yield? (a) Species that perform photorespiration (b) Species possessing C3 pathway (c) Species possessing C4 pathway (d) Same for all 88. According to Blackman’s law of limiting factor, at any given time, photosynthesis can be limited by (a) light only (b) CO 2 concentration only (c) both light and CO2 concentration (d) either by light or by CO2 89. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern states of India shows lesser yield due to limiting factor of

1800 and 600 respectively.

82. Chloroplasts are disrupted and the stroma separated from the lamellae. The isolated stroma will fix CO2 if it is supplied with

Bundle Sheath RuBisCO C3-cycle

90.

91.

(a) CO2 (b) light (c) temperature (d) water Why, at higher light intensities, gradually photosynthesis rate does not show further increase? (a) Higher light intensity activate more chlorophylls. (b) Higher light intensity causes more transpiration. (c) No need of more sugar formation. (d) Other factors become limiting. Under water stress, the rate of photosynthesis declines because of (a) stomatal closure leading to decrease in CO2 supply. (b) reduced water potential that decreases leaf surface areas for photosynthesis. (c) both (a) and (b) (d) turgidity of leaf.

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Photosynthesis 92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

In C4 (sugarcane plant) plant,14CO2 is fixed in malic acid in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is (a) fructose phosphatase (b) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase (c) phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase (d) ribulose phosphate kinase What will happen if the supply of oxygen is decreased to an illuminated wheat plant? (a) Its photosynthesis would decrease. (b) Its respiration process would stop. (c) All physiological process would stop. (d) Its photosynthesis would increase. A student sets up an experiment on photosynthesis as follows: He takes soda water in a glass tumbler and add chlorophyll extracts into the contents and keeps the tumbler exposed to sunlight hoping that he has provided necessary ingredients for photosynthesis to proceed (viz., CO2, H2O, chlorophyll and light). What do you think what will happen after, say, a few hours of exposure of light? (a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will be produced. (b) Photosynthesis will take place and starch will be produced which will turn the mixture turbid. (c) Photosynthesis will not take place because CO2 dissolved in soda water escapes into the atmosphere. (d) Photosynthesis will not take place because intact chloroplasts are needed for the process. The electrons that are released by the photolysis of water during non-cyclic photophosphorylation, ultimately end up in (a) glucose (b) ATP (c) H2O (d) NADPH ADP is phosphorylated and NADP is reduced, this happens during. (a) dark phase of photosynthesis (b) light phase of photosynthesis (c) Photorespiration (d) Calvin cycle During light reaction, as electrons move through photosystems, protons are transported across the membrane. This happens because of (a) the primary acceptor of e– (located towards the outer surface of the membrane) transfers its electron not to an e– carrier but to H carrier. (b) the primary acceptor of e– transfers only its e– to e– carrier. (c) the primary acceptor of e– transfers only H+ to the next carrier. (d) NADP - reductase is present in grana.

119

98.

During the light stage of photosynthesis, the photoactivated pigment removes an electron from the hydroxylation derived from the water molecule. The fate of the free hydroxyl radical is that it (a) is broken down into oxygen and a free radical of hydrogen. (b) is used to raise the activation level of chlorophyll by donating a positive charge. (c) is used to produce adenosine triphosphate from adenosine diphosphate. (d) reduces carbon dioxide to sugar. 99. The function of water in photosynthesis is to (a) absorb light energy. (b) supply electrons in the light dependent reaction. (c) transport H+ ions in the light independent reactions. (d) provide O2 for the light-independent reactions. 100. Which of the following is not concern with cyclic photophosphorylation? (a) Liberation of oxygen. (b) Synthesis of ATP. (c) It occurs in certain photosynthetic bacteria. (d) Electron expelled from P700 return to it after passing through different electron acceptor 101. Cyclic and non-cyclic flow of e– is used in plants to (a) meet the ATP demands of Calvin-cycle. (b) avoid producing excess NADPH + H+. (c) balance ATP and NADPH + H+ ratio in chloroplasts. (d) All of the above 102. Which one of the following event occurs both during cyclic and non-cyclic modes of photophosphorylation? (a) Involvement of both PS - I and PS - II. (b) Formation of ATP. (c) Release of O2. (d) Formation of NADPH. 103. In a crop field a weedicide is used to remove weeds in order to increase the yield. But the effect of this weedicide is that, it blocks electron transport from photosystem II to photosystem I. This will result in (a) enhancement of dark reaction. (b) failure of ATP synthesis. (c) lack of reduction of NADP+. (d) both (b) and (c) 104. Cooperation of the two photosystems of the chloroplast is required for (a) ATP synthesis. (b) reduction of NADP+. (c) enhancement of dark reaction. (d) generation of protein motive force.

NADP+

105. Reduction of into NADPH during light reaction occurs in stroma because (a) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of membrane. (b) PS - I reduces NADP+ to NADPH +H+ in the stroma. (c) The pH of the stroma remains constant. (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 106. Assume the thylakoid membrane within a chloroplast is punctured so that there is no separation between lumen & stroma of thylakoid. Which of these process would be most affected? (a) the splitting of water (b) the synthesis of ATP (c) reduction of NADP+ (d) the flow of electrons from PS - II to PS - I 107. Two groups of isolated thylakoids are placed in an acidic bathing solution so that H+ diffuses into the thylakoids. They are then transferred to a basic bathing solution, and one group is placed in the light, while the other group is kept in the dark. Select the choice given below that describes what you expect each group of thylakoids to produce. In Light

In Dark

(a) ATP only

Nothing

(b) ATP, O2

ATP only

ATP, O2

(d) ATP, O2

108. By which of the following complex, proton is pumped to reach ATP synthase, to participate in ATP synthesis.? (a) Cytochrome b6 f (b) Cytochrome c oxidase (c) Cytochrome a - a3 (d) Cytochrome bc 109. Number of carbons in the primary CO2 fixation products in C3 plant is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 110. How many molecules of RuBP & CO2 respectively are required for production of 6 molecules of 3-PGA? (a) 3 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 3 (d) 3 and 1 111. Which of the following does not participate in the process of photosynthesis? (a) Red algae (b) Green algae (c) Brown algae (d) None of these 112. Which part of the plant do not perform photosynthesis? (a) Cactus stem (b) Guard cell of stomata (c) Mesophyll cells of leaf (d) Leaf epidermis 113. Photosynthesis is the transformation of (a) light energy to chemical energy. (b) chemical energy to light energy.

(c) light energy to kinetic energy. (d) solar energy to potential energy. 114. Accessory pigments (a) play no role in photosynthesis. (b) release e– and get oxidized. (c) transfer of e– to NADP. (d) allow plants to harvest visible light of wider range wavelengths. 115. Chlorophyll is suited for the capture of light energy because (a) certain wavelengths of light raise it to an excited state. (b) in its excited state chlorophyll gives off electrons. (c) chlorophyll’s structure allows it to attach to thylakoid membranes. (d) all of the above 116. The pigment molecules responsible for photosynthesis are located in the (a) cytoplasm of the cell. (b) matrix of the mitochondria. (c) thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast. (d) All of the above 117. Light reaction of photosynthesis results in the formation of (a) O2 (b) NADPH + H+ (c) ATP (d) All of these 118. During photosynthesis, electrons are continuously lost from the reaction centre of PSII. By which process these electrons are replaced? (a) Sunlight (b) Photolysis of water (c) Release of oxygen (d) Redox reaction 119. Breakdown of water during the photosynthesis molecule leads to release of (a) electron and proton (b) electron and oxygen (c) proton and oxygen (d) electron, proton and oxygen 120. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have (a) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts. (b) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts. (c) thin walls, no intercullular spaces and several chloroplasts. (d) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts.

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Respiration is a/an (a) anabolic + exergonic (b) catabolic + exergonic (c) catabolic + endergonic (d) anabolic + endergonic ATP is (a) an energy currency (b) a nucleotide (c) formed in both respiration and photosynthesis (d) all of the above Cellular respiration includes the various pathways by which carbohydrates and other metabolites are broken down with the consecutive buildup of (a) ATP (b) protein (c) vitamins (d) none of these During the process of respiration, which of the followings are released as products? (a) CO2, H2O and O2 (b) CO2, O2 and energy (c) CO, H2O and energy (d) CO2, H2O and energy Glycolysis occurs in the ________ and produces________, which in the presence of O2 enters the____________. (a) cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion (b) cytosol; glucose; mitochondrion (c) mitochondrion; pyruvate; chloroplast (d) chloroplast; glucose; cytosol The enzymes, involved in the chemical reactions of glycolysis are located (a) in the fluid matrix of cytoplasm. (b) in the mitochondrial matrix. (c) in the nuclear sap. (d) on the cristae of a mitochondria. In which of the following reaction of glycolysis, a molecule of water is removed from the substrate ? (a) Frucoste-6-phosphate ® Fructose 1, 6-phosphate (b) 3-phosphate glyceraldehyde ® 1, 3-biphosphoglyceric acid (c) PEP ® Pyruvic acid (d) 2-phosphoglycerate ® PEP Decarboxylation is not involved in (a) electron transport system (b) glycolysis

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Chapter

Respiration in Plants

(c) Kreb’s cycle (d) alcoholic fermentation Conversion of phosphenol pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid and ADP to ATP are examples of (a) photophosphorylation. (b) oxidative phosphorylation. (c) photoelectric phosphorylation. (d) substrate level phosphorylation. When oxygen is not available to a muscle cell, NADH formed during glycolysis does not pass electrons to the ETS. Instead, it passes hydrogen atoms to (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvic acid (c) fructose (d) ADP Which one of the following process releases a carbon dioxide molecule? (a) Glycolysis (b) Lactic acid fermentation (c) Alcohol fermentation (d) Hydrolysis of glycogen In the fermentation of one glucose molecule, there is a net gain of ______________ molecules of ATP. (a) one (b) two (c) six (d) eight In an anaerobic condition, yeast cells breakdown glucose into (a) CO2 + H2O (b) C2H5OH and CO2 (c) CO2 + lactic acid (d) CO2 + pyruvic acid The formation of acetyl coenzyme A from pyruvic acid produces (in addition to acetyl coenzyme A) one molecule of A , one molecule of B , and one molecule (ion) of C , Identify A, B and C respectively. A B C + (a) CO 2 NADH H + CO 2 NADH (b) H + O2 (c) NADH H + CO 2 NADH (d) H Which of the following are not used in the conversion by pyruvate to acetyl CoA? (i) Oxidative dehydrogenation (ii) Oxidative dehydration (iii) Oxidative phosphorylation (iv) Oxidative decarboxylation

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation? (a) Conversion of succinate to fumarate. (b) Conversion of fumarate to malate. (c) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA. (d) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate. Which one of the following is essential for the respiration as well as photosynthesis ? (a) Ubiquinone (b) Cytochrome (c) RuBisCO (d) Plastocyanin In which one of the following do the two names refer to tricarboxylic acid cycle? (a) a-ketoglutaric acid and Krebs cycle (b) Malic acid cycle and Kornberg cycle (c) Citric acid cycle and Krebs cycle (d) Oxaloacetic acid and Kornberg cycle Citrate synthase, an enzyme of TCA cycle is located in (a) cytosol in prokaryotes. (b) mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes. (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above In citric acid cycle, energy bond (GTP) is produced as a result of conversion of (a) citric acid to a-keto glutaric acid. (b) succinic acid to malic acid. (c) succinyl - CoA to succinic acid. (d) succinic acid to succinyl - CoA. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 32 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2 in (a) respiratory chain (b) Krebs cycle (c) oxidative decarboxylation (d) EMP Acceptor of acetyl Co-A in Kreb’s cycle is (a) malic acid (b) fumaric acid (c) a-keto glutaric acid (d) oxaloacetic acid Total number of ATP consumed during Kreb’s cycle is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Electron Transport System (ETS) is present in (a) inner mitochondrial membrane. (b) mitochondrial matrix. (c) chlorophyll. (d) chloroplast. In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of proton is (a) cytochrome b (b) cytochrome a3 (c) oxygen (d) ubiquinone (substance A) Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is (a) cyt. b (b) cyt. c (c) cyt. (d) cyt. a3

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

A major site for synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi is (a) F1 headpiece in mitochondria. (b) F0. (c) F1 – F0. (d) mitochondria. The F1 headpiece is a (a) peripheral membrane protein complex. (b) integral membrane protein complex. (c) transmembrane protein. (d) carrier protein. How many ATP molecules can be produced through oxidative phosphorylation of 2NADH2 and 3 FADH2? (a) 15 (b) 24 (c) 6 (d) 12 The main purpose of electron transport chain is to (a) cycle NADH + H+ back to NAD+ (b) use the intermediates from TCA cycle (c) breakdown pyruvate (d) all of the above Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on the (a) membrane potential. (b) accumulation of Na ions. (c) accumulation of K ions. (d) proton gradient. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is (a) cyt a a b c (b) cyt b c a a3 (c) cyt b c a3 a (d) cyt c b a a3 Which of the following is amphibolic in nature? (a) Glycolysis (b) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate (c) TCA cycle (d) Oxidative phosphorylation Refer the given equation and answer the question. 2(C 51H 98 O 6 ) + 145O 2 ¾¾ ® 102CO 2 + 98H 2 O + Energy

35.

36.

The R.Q of above reaction is (a) 1 (b) 0.7 (c) 1.45 (d) 1.62 If R. Q. is less than 1.0 in a respiratory metabolism, it means that (a) carbohydrates are used as respiratory substrate. (b) organic acids are used as respiratory substrate. (c) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed more oxygen than the amount of CO2 released. (d) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed less oxygen than the amount of CO2 released. The overall goal of glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of (a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (b) sugars (c) nucleic acids (d) ATP in small stepwise units

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Respiration in Plants

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STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

Which of the following statement regarding the process of glycolysis is correct? (a) Glucose undergoes complete oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic acid. (b) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form one molecule of pyruvic acid. (c) Glucose undergoes complete oxidation to form one molecule of pyruvic acid. (d) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic acid. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Kreb’s cycle? (a) It is also known as tricarboxylic acid cycle. (b) It occurs in mitochondria. (c) It starts with six carbon compound. (d) It does not involve any decarboxylation step. Select the incorrect statement about NADH during cellular respiration. (a) It is synthesized in glycolysis. (b) It is transferred into the mitochondria. (c) It undergoes oxidative phosphorylation. (d) It is reduced to NAD+. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the ETS? (a) It is present in the mitochondrial matrix. (b) Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to 2 molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of FADH2 produces 3 molecules of ATP. (c) Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor. (d) In respiration, light energy is utilized for the production of proton gradient. Which of the following statement about cellular energyharvesting pathway is incorrect? (a) Pyruvate oxidation can only occur under aerobic conditions. (b) Autotrophs can produce their own food but must obtain energy from it by glycolysis & cellular respiration. (c) Fermentation usually occurs under aerobic conditions. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement regarding pyruvate during aerobic respiration is incorrect? (a) It is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the mitochondrial matrix. (b) It enters mitochondrial matrix & undergoes oxidative decarboxylation. (c) The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase. (d) Two molecules of NADH are produced from the metabolism of two molecules of pyruvic acid. Which of the following is a more accurate statement about respiration ?

44.

45.

46.

(a) O2 must always be available for respiration. (b) O2 combines with carbon to form CO2. (c) O2 combines with hydrogen to form H2O. (d) Air is inhaled and exhaled only from stomata. Which of the following statement(s) concerning ATP synthesis is/are correct? (a) ATP can be synthesized through substrate level phosphorylation, photophosphorylation an d oxidative phosphorylation. (b) The proton-motive force is the establishment of proton gradients and electrochemical potentials across the inner membrane. (c) Proton-motive force is essential for back flow of H+ from outer chamber of matrix of mitochondria through proton channel (F0) of F0 – F1 particle to produce ATP. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement is/are the correct events in aerobic respiration? (i) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules of O2. (ii). The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules of CO2. (iii) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O 2 with simultaneous synthesis of ATP. (iv) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O 2 with simultaneous synthesis of ADP. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Which of the following statements (i to v) regarding glycolysis are correct. (i) It is ten enzymatic reactions that convert a six-carbon molecule to a three carbon pyruvate and result in a net gain of 2 ATP molecules. (ii) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form one molecule of pyruvic acid. (iii) Glucose is phosphorylated to give rise to glucose - 6 - phosphate by the activity of the enzyme phosphofructokinase. (iv) The scheme of glycolysis was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Morrison, and J. Parnas and is often referred to as the EMP pathway. (v) ATP is utilized at two steps: first in the conversion of glucose into glucose 6-phosphate & second in the conversion of fructose - 6- phosphate to fructose 1 , 6-disphosphate. (a) (i), (iv) and (v) (b) (iii) and (v) (c) (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (iv)

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 47. Assertion : Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm. Reason : Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm. It is common in aerobic/anaerobic respiration. 48. Assertion : The atmospheric concentration of CO2 at which photosynthesis just compensates for respiration is referred to as CO2 compensation point. Reason : The CO2 compensation point is reached when the amount of CO2 uptake is less than that generated through respiration because the level of CO 2 in the atmosphere is more than that required for achieving CO2 compensation point. 49. Assertion : Stomata are absent in submerged hydrophytes. Reason : Respiration occurs by means of air chambers in submerged plants. 50. Assertion : Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in which glucose completely breaks into CO2 and H2O. Reason : In this process, there is net gain of twenty four molecules of ATP. 51. Assertion : The inner membrane of mitochondria contains systems involving electron transport. Reason : The mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of Kreb's cycle.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 52.

Column - I A. Complex I

Column - II Cytochrome bc 1 complex

B. Complex II

II. NADH dehydrogenase

C. Complex III

III. ATP synthetase

D. Complex IV

IV. FADH2 dehydrogenase

E. Complex V V. Cytochrome c oxidase (a) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II

(b) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – III (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – III 54. Match the number of carbon atoms given in column - I with that of the compounds given in column - II and select the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. 4C compound I. Acetyl CoA B. 2C compound II. Pyruvate C. 5C compound III. Citric acid D. 3C compound IV. a- ketoglutaric acid V. Malic acid (a) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I (b) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II 55. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (a) Protein ® Degarded by proteases (b) Fats ® Fatty acid + PGAL (c) Kreb’s cycle ® Carboxylation (c) Respiratory pathway ® Amphibolic

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 56. The given figure shows the few steps of the pathway are indicated by P, Q, R and S major pathway of anaerobic respiration.

Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II A. Inner mitochondrial membrane I. Krebs cycle B. Pyruvic acid is converted into II. ETC CO2 and ethanol. C. Cytoplasm III. Fermentation D. Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV

(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I 53. In the given columns, column-I contain complexes and column-II contain their alternative names. Select the correct match from the option given below.

+ CO2

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125

Identify P, Q, R and S.

(b)

(a)

GTP

NADH2

CO2

Ethanol

Lactic acid

PEP

(b)

FADH2

NADH2

GTP

NAD Ethanol

Lactic acid

ATP

(c)

NADH2

FADH2

GTP

Glucose

ADP

(d)

CO2

NADH2

ADP

Lactic acid

Ethanol

DHAP

NAD Ethanol NAD

R +

P (a)

59. In the given figure of electron transport chain - identify P, Q, R, S and T.

57. Refer the figure of citric acid cycle and choose the correct combination of labelling (P, Q, R, S and T) the number of carbon compounds in the substrate molecules, involved in the given figure.

Inner membrane of mitochondria Q

P 2H

FMN

(P)

(Q)

2e FeS

Fes

UQ H2

2e UQ

2e Cy b

Oxaloacetic

2e FeS

UQ H2 2e Cy c Cy c

2e UQ

T 1/2O2 + 2H H2O

–

2e Cy a – a1

(a)

(R)

(T) (S)

(a) (P) 4C, (Q) 6C, (R) 5C, (S) 4C, (T) 4C (b) (P) 6C, (Q) 5C, (R) 4C, (S) 3C, (T) 2C (c) (P) 2C, (Q) 5C, (R) 6C, (S) 4C, (T) 4C (d) (P) 4C, (Q) 6C, (R) 4C, (S) 4C, (T) 5C 58. Refer the figure and identify X, Y and Z

P - Matrix, Q - Outer membrane, R - RMNH2, S NADH2, T - 2H (b) P - Inter membrane space, Q - Matrix, R - NADH + H+, S - NAD+, T - 2H+ (c) P - Outer membrane, Q - Cristae, R - NAD, S - NADH + H+, T - H (d) P - Cristae, Q - Outer chamber, R - NADH + H+, S NAD, T - 2H+ 60. The given figure represents the interelationship among metabolic pathways showing the respiration mediated breakdown of different organic molecules to CO2 and H2O. Now identify A to D. A

Ox alo

ac eti c

Fatty + Glycerol acids

id =

Carbohydrates

Monosaccharides E.g. Glucose

Amino acids

Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose 1, 6 bis-phosphate

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate Pyruvic acid D Kreb’s cycle H2 O

CO2

67.

68.

69.

(a) 1,3 di PGA 3 PGA (b ) 3 PGA

Fr.1,6 d i P

S Fr. 6 P

1,3 di PGA Fr. 1,6 d i P Fr.6 P

3 PGA

1,3 d i PGA

Fr. 1,6 d i P 3 PGA

1,3 d i PGA

70.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

Respiration substrates are (i) the compounds that are oxidized to utilise energy. (ii) the compounds that are reduced to utilise energy. (iii) the compounds that are oxidized to release energy. (iv) the compounds that are reduce to release energy. (a) (i) only (b) both (i) and (ii) (c) (iii) only (d) Both (iii) and (iv) Respiration is the breakdown of (a) C-C bonds (b) C-H bonds (c) H-H bonds (d) C-N bonds Energy accumulate in ATP in (a) disulphide bond (b) hydrogen bonds (c) high energy phosphate bond (d) ester bond Life without air would be (a) reductional. (b) free from oxidative damage. (c) impossible. (d) anaerobic. What is the function of molecular oxygen in cellular respiration?

71.

72.

73.

(a) It causes the breakdown of citric acid. (b) It combines with glucose to produce carbon dioxide. (c) It combines with carbon from organic molecules to produce carbon dioxide. (d) It combines with hydrogen from organic molecules to produce water. During glycolysis, glucose split into (a) two pyruvic acid molecules. (b) two coenzyme A molecules. (c) two lactic acid molecules. (d) one lactic acid plus one ethanol molecule. Which one is correct sequence in glycolysis? (a) G 6-P ® PEP ® 3-PGAL ® 3-PGA (b) G 6-P ® 3-PGAL ® 3-PGA ® PEP (c) G 6-P ® PEP ® 3-PGA ® 3-PGAL (d) G 6-P ® 3-PGA ® 3-PGAL ® PEP Which of the following is correct sequence in Kreb’s cycle? (a) Isocitric acid ® Oxalosuccinic acid ® a-ketoglutaric acid (b) Oxalosuccinic acid ® Isocitric acid ® a-ketoglutaric acid (c) a-ketoglutaric acid ® Isocitric acid ® Oxalosuccinic acid (d) Isocitric acid ® a-ketoglutaric acid ® Oxalosuccinic acid In glycolysis, there is one step where NADH + H+ is formed fr om NAD + , this is when 3phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to 1, 3bisphosphyglycerate (BPGA). This reaction shows (a) oxidative dehydrogenation (b) oxidative phosphorylation (c) oxidative dehydration (d) oxidation reduction If hexokinase, an enzyme that catalyzes the first step reaction in glycolysis is blocked then what will be its impact on glycolytic pathway ? (a) Glycolysis will speed up. (b) Glycolysis will slow down. (c) Glycolysis will stop. (d) Glycolysis will occurs normally. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ? (a) Thirty (b) Fifty seven (c) One (d) Two How many molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

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Respiration in Plants 74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

The reasons for the involvement of different enzyme in each step of glycolysis is that (a) each step occurs in a different compartment of a cell. (b) each step occurs in a different cells. (c) each step involves a different chemical reaction. (d) each step involves a different change in potential energy. For bacteria to continue growing rapidly when they are shifted from an environment containing O2 to an anaerobic environment, they must (a) produce more ATP per mole of glucose during glycolysis. (b) produce ATP during oxidation of glucose. (c) increase the rate of glycolysis. (d) increase the rate of TCA cycle. In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is produced during the (a) reduction of acetyldehyde to ethanol. (b) oxidation of glucose. (c) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA. (d) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP. Fermentation takes place (a) under anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes. (b) under aerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes. (c) under anaerobic conditions in all prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes. (d) under aerobic conditions in all prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes. In the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A, NAD+ is (a) oxidized (b) reduced (c) broken into one-carbon units (d) isomerized Initial step of TCA cycle to yield citric acid starts with the condensation of (a) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & catalyzed by the enzyme citrate synthase. (b) acetyl group with pyruvate & H2O & catalysed by the enzyme citrates synthase. (c) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & is independent of the enzyme. (d) none of the above. End products of Krebs cycle from one molecule of glucose is (a) 2ATP, 2NADH, 2FADH2, CO2 and H2O (b) 2ATP, 8NADH, 2FADH2, CO2 and H2O (c) 8ATP, 4NADH, FADH2, CO2 and H2O (d) ATP, 4NADH, FADH2, CO2 and H2O In Kreb’s cycle, the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid requires (a) Acetyl CoA + GDP + iP (b) CoA + GTP + iP (c) Acetyl CoA+ GTP + iP (d) GDP + iP

127

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

Single turn of citric acid cycle yields (a) 2FADH2, 2NADH2, 2GTP (b) 1FADH2, 2NADH2, 1GTP (c) 1FADH2, 4NADH2, 1GTP (d) 1FADH2, 1NADH2, 2GTP Which one of the following is complex V of the ETS of inner mitochondrial membrane? (a) NADH dehydrogenase (b) ATP synthetase (c) Succinate dehydrogenase (d) Ubiquinone O2 is used by (a) citric acid cycle (b) electron transport chain (c) substrate level phosphorylation (d) ATP synthase In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the (a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane (c) inter membrane space (d) matrix The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because (a) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins. (b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space. (c) a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane. (d) there is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Reduced form of ubiquinone is (a) ubiquinine (b) ubiquinol (c) ubiquitine (d) all of the above Cytochrome oxidase contain (a) Fe (b) Mg (c) Zn (d) Cu Acetyl CoA is formed by the breakdown of (a) fats (b) fatty acid (c) glycerol (d) PGAL In some succulent plants like Opuntia the R. Q. is zero because (a) CO2 is released without any absorption of O2. (b) O2 is absorbed but CO2 is not released. (c) there is often compensation point in these plants due to thick phylloclades. (d) none of the above In alcoholic fermentation (a) oxygen is the electron acceptor. (b) triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor. (c) triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor. (d) there is no electron donor.

92.

93.

94.

Which one of the following is not included in glycolysis ? (a) Substrate level phosphorylation occur. (b) The end products are CO2 and H2O. (c) ATP is formed. (d) ATP is used. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway ? (a) Glycolysis ® NADH ® Oxidative phosphorylation ® ATP ® O2 (b) Krebs’ cycle ® FADH2 ® ETS ® ATP (c) ETS ® Krebs’ cycle ® ATP ® O2 (d) Krebs’ cycle ® NADH + H+ ® Electron transport chain ® O2 The expressions given below shows the summary equations I, II and III.

97.

98.

99.

(I) (II) C6H12O6 + NAD+ + 2ADP + 2Pi ® 2C3H4O3 + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+ (III) Pyruvic acid + 4NAD+ + FAD+ + 2H2O + ADP + Pi ® 3CO2 + 4NADH + 4H+ + ATP + FADH2 Categorise the summary equations under respective phases. I (a) Krebs’ cycle

95.

II Glycolysis

101.

III Fermentation

(b) Glycolysis

Krebs’ cycle

Fermentation

Krebs’ cycle

Glycolysis

(d) Fermentation Glycolysis Krebs’ cycle Fermentation is represented by the equation (a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 ® 6CO2 + 6H2O + 673 k cal (b) C6H12O6 ® 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 18 k cal Light

96.

100.

6O2 (d) 6CO2 + 6H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6O2 The common phase between aerobic and anaerobic respiration is called (a) tricarboxylic acid cycle (b) Oxidative phosphorylation (c) Embden, Meyerhof, Parnas cycle (Glycolysis) (d) Fermentation

102.

103.

Conversion of phosphoglyceraldehyde to 1, 1-biphosphoglyceric acid is a (a) primary reaction only (b) redox reaction only (c) primary and redox reaction (d) substrate level phosphorylation reaction In respiration, largest amount of energy is produced in (a) anaerobic respiration (b) Krebs’ cycle (c) glycolysis (d) none of the above In which one of the following reactions, substrate level phosphorylation does not occur? (a) 1, 3-biphosphoglyceric acid ® 3, phosphoglyceric acid (b) Glucose-6-phosphate ® Fructose 6 phosphate (c) Succinyl CoA ® Succinic acid (d) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid ® pyruvic acid Which of the following processes make direct use of oxygen? (a) Glycolysis (b) Fermentation (c) Electron transport (d) Krebs citric acid cycle Lactic acid is formed by the process of (a) fermentation (b) HMP pathway (c) glycolysis (d) none of these Oxidative phosphorylation refers to (a) anaerobic production of ATP. (b) the citric acid cycle production of ATP. (c) production of ATP by chemiosmosis. (d) alcoholic fermentation. Cytochrome oxidase is a/an (a) exoenzyme (b) endoenzyme (c) proenzyme (d) coenzyme

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Plant Growth and Development FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Growth is accompanied by (a) anabolic process and energy (b) catabolic process which occurs at the expense of energy. (c) metabolic processes which occur at the expense of energy (d) energy only Germination takes place when the (a) previously dormant embryo is activated. (b) cotyledons emerge above the ground. (c) hypocotyl or epicotyl emerges above the ground. (d) vascular tissues begin to transport fluids. The method that renders the seed coat permeable to water so that embryo expansion is not physically retarded is called (a) vernalization (b) stratification (c) denudation (d) scarification In arithmetic growth rate, when length of the organ is plotted against time, the nature of graph curve will be — (a) linear (b) sigmoidal (c) parabolic (d) hyperbolic The measure of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material is referred as — (a) efficiency index (b) absolute growth rate (c) arithmetic growth (d) linear growth In which of the following process, the cell loose their protoplasm to form tracheary element? (a) Dedifferentiation (b) Redifferentiation (c) Differentiation (d) Plasticity The ability of plant to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to environment and phases of life is termed as — (a) elasticity (b) growth efficiency (c) plasticity (d) heterophylly Which one of the following is chemically identical to ABA? (a) Indole-3-acetic acid (b) Kinetin (c) Dormin (d) 2, 4-D

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

Chapter

\\node-d-19\E\vinod\2017\Amit\NCERT Xtract-12th-Biology\Biology\division chapter\Volume - I

The hormones which was first isolated from human urine is. (a) indole-3-acetic acid (b) gibberellin (c) ethylene (d) kinetin Which of the following is not an influence of auxins? (a) Apical dominance (b) Parthenocarpy (c) Phototropism (d) Fruit ripening Auxin herbicide is — (a) NAA (b) IAA (c) 2, 4-D (d) IBA Gibberellin was first extracted from — (a) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) algae (c) bacteria (d) roots of higher plants Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with — (a) cytokinin (b) gibberellic acid (c) auxin (d) antigibberellin Hormone responsible for bolting is — (a) IAA (b) kinetin (c) ABA (d) GA Which one is the first Gibberellins to be discovered and remains the most intensively studied form? (a) GA1 (b) GA2 (c) GA3 (d) GA0 Which of the following is not a function of cytokinin? (a) Promotes apical dominance. (b) Promotes chloroplast development. (c) Promotes movement of nutrients. (d) Delay leaf senescence. The most abundant natural cytokinin that is isolated from corn kernels and coconut milk is — (a) carotenoid derivative (b) pyrimidine derivative (c) inetin (d) zeatin Which of the following synthetic phytohormone was discovered as a breakdown product of DNA? (a) Kinetin (b) 2, 4-D (c) NAA (d) Thidiazuron

19. Highest concentration of cytokinin is found in (a) area of continuous growth and meristematic region. (b) meristematic region only. (c) mature leaves. (d) ripened fruit. 20. Gaseous hormone is (a) ethylene (b) ethane (c) acetylene (d) benzaldehyde 21. Senescence in plants can be promoted by applying. (a) auxins (b) cytokinins (c) GA (d) ethylene 22. Which of the following hormone is concerned with climacteric respiration? (a) Ethylene (b) Auxin (c) GA1 (d) Cytokinin 23. Presence of which of the following compound accelerates abscission of flower and fruits? (a) Acetaldehyde (b) Ethephon (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Zeatin 24. Lead abscission, fruit fall, bud dormancy occurs by which of the following phytohormone? (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinins (c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid 25. Which of the following hormone closes stomata in response to water stress? (a) IAA (b) ABA (c) NAA (d) GA3 26. ABA is antagonistic to (a) GA (b) cytokinin (c) ethylene (d) auxin 27. The movement of plant and its parts in response to light is called (a) photorespiration (b) photosynthesis (c) phototropism (d) photophosphorylation 28. Photoperiodism is (a) recurrence of day and night. (b) effect of day length on flowering of a plant. (c) flowering plant. (d) growth curvature in response to light. 29. The essential distinction between long-day and shortday plants is that flowering in long day plants is promoted only when the day length exceeds a certain duration, called the ______________. (a) critical day length (b) short-long day length (c) long-short day length (d) photoperiod 30. Plants requiring exposure to light for less than critical period in order to flower are called ________. (a) long day plants. (b) day neutral plants. (c) intermediate day plants. (d) short day plants.

31. Day neutral plants relate to (a) loss of activity during day time. (b) flowering in all possible photoperiods. (c) overactive during day time. (d) no flowering in any photoperiods. 32. Effect of low temperature which shortens vegetative period and hastens flowering is called _______. (a) photoperiodism (b) transpiration (c) vernalization (d) photolysis 33. Seed dormancy (a) is the temporal delay to the process of germination. (b) is the permanent delay to the process of germination. (c) minimizes seedling survival by preventing germination. (d) occurs due to the presence of growth inhibitors only. 34. 6-furfuryl amino purine, 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic a ci d an d i ndole-3 acetic acid ar e exa mples respectively for (a) synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural auxin. (b) gibberellin, natural auxin and kinetin. (c) natural auxin, kinetin and synthetic auxin. (d) kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural auxin.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 35. Which of the following statement is not the characteristic of growth of an organism? (a) It is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ / its part / an individual cell. (b) It is accompanied by metabolic processes. (c) It is quantitative and intrinsic. (d) None of the above 36. Which of the following statement is not correct about the conditions for plant growth? (a) Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities. (b) Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as source of energy. (c) Light and gravity affect certain stages of growth. (d) Water oxidizes glucose to provide energy. 37. Which one of the following statement regarding auxin is correct? (a) IAA and IBA are natural but NAA, 2 4-D and 2, 4, 5T are synthetic auxins. (b) IAA and NAA are natural but IBA, 2, 4, 5-T and 2, 4D are synthetic auxins. (c) NAA and 2, 4, 5-T are natural but IAA, IBA and 2, 4D are synthetic auxins. (d) IAA, NAA, IAB, 2, 4-D and 2, 4, 5-T are synthetic auxins.

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Plant Growth and Development 38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

Which of the following statement is correct regarding ethylene? (a) It delayes senescence. (b) It decreases the respiration rate during fruit ripening. (c) It breaks seed and bud dormancy. (d) It inhibits flowering in mango. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (a) Long day plants flower if the night length is shorter than a critical period. (b) Short-day plants flower when night length exceeds a critical dark period. (c) Day-neutral plants are insensitive to day length. (d) The process of flowering does not occur in dayneutral plants. Which of the following statement regarding vernalisation is correct? (a) Vernalisation refers to the promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature. (b) The spring variety of crops are normally planted in the spring and come to flower before the end of the growing season. (c) It is not seen in biennial plants. (d) Subjecting cold treatment to sugar beet will result in flowering. Identify the correct and incorrect statements from the following. (i) 17,500 new cells are produced per hour by a single maize root apical meristem. (ii) With the help of length, growth of pollen tube is measured. (iii) The growth of the leaf is measured in terms of volume. (iv) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by upto 3,50,000 times. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct and (iv) is incorrect. (b) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct and (iii) is incorrect. (c) (ii), (iii) are correct and (i), (iv) are incorrect. (d) (i), (iv) are correct and (ii), (iii) are incorrect. Which of the following statements on phytohormones & their action are correct? (i) Cytokinins specially help in delaying senescence. (ii) Auxins are involved in regulating apical dominance. (iii) Ethylene is specially useful in enhancing seed germination. (iv) Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling of leaves. (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (i) and (iv) only (c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only Which of the following statements are correct ? (i) Cytokinins promote senescence. (ii) Auxins control apical dominance. (iii) Gibberellins promote shoot elongation.

131

(iv) Abscissic acid enables seeds to withstand desiccation. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only 44. Refer the following statements. (i) Promotes flowering in pineapple. (ii) Used to prepare weed free lawn. (iii) Promotes the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits. The above functions are carried out by (a) GA (b) C2H4 (c) ABA (d) Auxin 45. Read the following statements (i-iv) r egarding “ethephon” and answer the question which follows them. (i) Ethephon is sprayed in aqueous solution and is readily absorbed and transported within the plant. (ii) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples. (iii) It can be used to induce fruit thinning in cotton, cherry and walnut. (iv) It is used to promote female sex expression in cucumber and increase yield. How many of the above statement(s) is/ are correct? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) All

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 51.

52.

53.

54.

Match the plant hormones given in column I with their function/other name given in column II and choose the correct combination. Column -I Column -II (Plant hormone) (Function/other name) A. Zeatin I. Flowering hormone B. Florigen II. Synthetic auxin C. IBA III. Cytokinin D. NAA IV. Natural auxin (a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II Match the growth regulators given in column I with their action given in column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Growth Regulator) (Action) A. Abscisic acid I. Delays leaf senescence B. Ethylene II. Inhibits seed germination C. Cytokinin III. Herbicide D. Auxin IV. Hastens fruit ripening (a) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III. (b) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV (c) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I. (d) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV Match the plant hormones listed in column-I with their major role listed in column-II. Select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Auxin I. Fruit ripening B. Cytokinins II. Apical dominance C. Abscisic acid III. Antagonistic to GAs D. Ethylene IV. Stomatal opening and closing V. Growth of lateral buds (a) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – I (b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – 1 (c) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I (d) A – III; IV B – V; C – II; D – I Match the growth regulators given in column-I with the processes given in column-II and choose the correct combination. Column-I Column-II (Growth regulators) (Processes) A Auxin I. Colouring test in lemon B Gibberellin II. Cell division test in plants C Cytokinin III. Avena curvature test D Ethylene IV. Dwarf corn test (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

55.

Match Column-I (Discovery) and Column-II (Scientists) and select the correct option. Column - I (Discovery)

Column - II (Name of scientists)

Foolish seedling disease of rice

Crystallized the II. F.W. Went Kinetic Release of ethylene III. Skoog and Miller gas

C. D.

Bioassay of Auxin

Cousins

IV. E. Kurosawa

(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II 56. Refer the functions of the growth hormones given below. I. Cell division II. Cell enlargement III. Pattern formation IV. Tropic growth V Flowering VI. Fruiting VII. Seed germination VIII. Response to wound IX. Response to stresses of biotic and abiotic origin Identify the functions of growth promoters and growth inhibitors from the above. Functions of growth promoters

Functions of growth inhibitor

(a) I, II, VII, IX

III, IV, V, VI, VII

(b) VIII, IX

I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII

VIII, IX

(d) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX VIII

57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Abscisic acid — Stomatal closure (b) Gibberellic acid — Leaf fall (c) Cytokinin — Cell division (d) IAA — Cell wall elongation 58. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (a) Adenine derivative Kinetin (b) Carotenoid derivative ABA (c) Terpenes IAA (d) Indole compounds IBA 59. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? (a) IAA - Indole compound (b) GA - Terpenes (c) ABA - Carotenoid derivatives (d) C2H4 - Adenine derivatives

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133

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 60.

The picture given below shows a graph drawn on the parameters of growth versus time. Identify A, B, C marked in the given graph. A

Size

III

Fig : Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile is the source of auxin. Arrows indicate direction of light B

Time

A Expo nen tial ph as e

B Lo g ph as e

C Statio nary p h as e

Statio nary ph as e

Lag phas e

Lo g p has e

(c)

Log p has e

Statio nary Lo g arithmic ph as e p has e

(d )

Log p has e

Lag p has e

(a) (b )

Which two coleoptiles will both bend towards the light source? (a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) III and IV 63. Which of the following shows the correct graph of arithmetic growth? (a)

((b)) Growth

Statio nary p h as e

Time

61. The given diagram represents the germination and seedling development in beam. Growth

Young leaves Cotyledons B C Soil line D

Time

(c)c)

(d)( Growth

Time

Identify A, B, C and D marked in the given figure.

Growth

(a) Plumule

Cotyledons Hypocotyl

Epicotyl

(b) Radicle

Seed coat

Hypocotyl

Epicotyl

Root hair

(d) Root hair

Hypocotyl

Cotyledons Plumule

62. The following diagram shows four coleoptiles set up (I, II, III & IV) at the start of an experiment.

Time

64. The graph given below shows a geometrical growth rate.

Which of the following statement regarding the above graph is incorrect? (a) The initial growth is slow, thereafter exponential phase and then stationary phase. (b) A sigmoidal curve is a characteristic of living organism growing in a natural environment. (c) With limited nutrient supply, the growth rate increases rapidly leading to a exponential phase. (d) Geometrical growth is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of a plant. 65. The given figure shows the comparison of growth rate of two leaves (A and B) over the period of one day. Both the leaves A and B have increased their area in a given time to produce A’ and B’ leaves respectively. If AGR = absolute growth rate and RGR = relative growth rate, then select the correct option.

67.

The picture below shows three different types of plants (marked as P-I, P-II and P-III) which flower on the basis of their critical photoperiod. Now identify these plants (P-I, II and III).

P-I A' 10 cm2

(a)

55 cm2

(b)

50 cm

5 cm

(d)

Time = 1 day

A-Leaf

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS

B-Leaf

AGR

RGR

AGR

RGR

(a)

(b)

100%

10%

(c)

100%

10%

(d)

0.5

100%

1.5

100%

66. Maryland Mammoth Tobacco is a short day plant. Its critical duration of darkness is 10 hours. Under which of the following conditions will Maryland Mammoth tobacco not flower ?

(a) 24- hour clock

(b) critical level

P-II

P-III P-I = Long day plant; P-II = Short day plant; P-III = Day neutral plant P-I = Short day plant; P-II = Long day plant; P-III = Day neutral plant P-I = Short day plant; P-II = Short day plant; P-III = Day neutral plant P-I =Long day plant; P-II = Long day plant; P-III = Day neutral plant

(d) critical level

critical level

light

dark

68. Which of the following points is shown by cell at the root or shoot apex ? (a) Rich in protoplasm, possesses large conspicuous triploid nucleus. (b) Cell wall is cellulosic, primary in nature and with abundant plasmodesmata. (c) Rich in protoplasm with large conspicuous nucleus. (d) Both (b) and (c). 69. Maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modification are achieved by (a) cells of divisional phase. (b) cells of maturation phase. (c) cells of elongation phase. (d) cells of meristematic tissue. 70. Arithmetic growth is expressed as (a) Lt = L0 + rt (b) L0 = L0 + rt (c) W1 = W0 ert (d) W0 = W1 ert 71. A sigmoidal curve is obtained in geometrical growth because (a) it has lag, log and then stationary phase.

EBD_7209

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134

Plant Growth and Development

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

(b) one daughter cell remains meristematic while the other daughter cell differentiates and matures. (c) of the effect of environment on mitosis. (d) none of the above Absolute growth rate is defined as the (a) synthesis of new intercellular and extracellular materials. (b) measurement & the comparison of total growth per unit time (c) growth of the given system per unit time. (d) increased growth per unit time. The exponential growth can be expressed as W1 = W0ert. What is ‘r’ in the expression ? (a) Relative growth rate and depends on final size. (b) Absolute growth rate & depends on initial size. (c) Relative growth and also referred to as efficiency index. (d) None of the above A primary root grows from 5 cm - 19 cm in a week. Calculate the relative growth rate over the period. (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80% De-differentiation is (a) regaining the lost capacity of division by living cells. (b) the ability of plant to produce different structures in response to environment. (c) the intrinsic factor affecting plant growth. (d) none of the above. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the development process in a plant cell? (a) Cell division ® Elongation ® Senescence ® Maturation (b) Meristematic cell ® Maturation elongation ® Death (c) Cell division ® Elongation ® Maturation ® Plasmatic growth (d) Cell division ® Differentiation ® Maturation ® Senescence A phytohormone is (a) an ion that alters turgor pressure. (b) small molecules of diverse chemical composition. (c) a pigment responds to environmental changes. (d) a secondary metabolic compound. Experiments done by Charles Darwin and his son on plant phototropism showed that (a) auxin is produced in the tip of the coleoptile. (b) the tip of the coleoptile is the light receptor of the plant. (c) within coleoptiles, auxin moves laterally away from the source of the light. (d) more cell elongation takes place on the shaded side of the plant.

135

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

Ethylene is used for (a) retarding ripening of tomatoes. (b) ripening of fruits. (c) slowing down ripening of apples. (d) both (b) and (c). Skoog and Miller stimulated cell division in tobacco plant with degraded DNA. The active ingredient in stimulants, which resembles cytokinins, was modified (a) adenine (b) auxin (c) terpenes (d) carotenoids Which hormone is used to induce rooting from cut end of the stem? (a) Kinetin (b) Indole butyric acid (c) GA3 (d) Abscisic acid Plant hormone which is translocated to other parts for growth of the plant is (a) indole-3-acetic acid (b) gibberellins (c) cytokinins (d) none of these Flowering in pineapple is promoted by (a) GA1 (b) C2H4 (c) NAA (d) Kinetin Which one of the following promotes the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits? (a) Indole compounds (b) adenine derivatives (c) derivatives of carotenoids (d) gaseous hormones Removal of apical (terminal) bud of a flowering plant (or pruning of a flowering plant) leads to (a) formation of new apical buds. (b) formation of adventitious roots on the cut side. (c) early flowering (or stopping of floral growth). (d) promotion of lateral branches. Which one of the following hormone is used to eradicate dicotyledonous weeds, but does not have its effect on mature monocotyledonous plants? (a) 2, 4-D (b) IAA (c) NAA (d) IBA The chemicals from an unlabelled bottle of plant hormone when applied to a plant, a curvature induced by light is found in the stem. The chemical is most probably a (a) auxin (b) gibberellin (c) kinetin (d) ABA Which of the following acids is a derivative of terpenes? (a) Gibberellic acid (b) Naphthalene acetic acid (c) Abscissic acid (d) ‘a’ and ‘c’ The fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to extend the market period. This is due to which function of GA ? (a) Bolting (b) Delays senescence (c) Internodal elongation (d) Parthenocarpy Which of the following hormones causes fruits like apple to elongate and improve its shape? (a) GA (b) ABA (c) NAA (d) 2, 4D

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

Which of the following hormone regulates the transition from juvenile to adult phases in confers? (a) Cytokinins (b) GA0 (c) ABA (d) IAA Which form of gibberellic acid is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry? (a) GA1 (b) GA2 (c) GA3 (d) None of these Farmers in a particular region were concerned that premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield? (a) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid. (b) Frequent irrigation of the crop. (c) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with small doses of nitrogenous fertilizer. (d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll. Ethylene is not directly applied in the field as a gas due to its high diffusion rate. Which compound is used to overcome this limitation? (a) Ethephon (b) Agent orange (c) Benzaldehyde (d) 2, 4, 5-T Climacteric in the plants means (a) increase in respiration rate before the ripening phase. (b) decrease in respiration rate before the ripening phase. (c) increase in respiration rate after the ripening phase. (d) decrease in respiration rate after the ripening phase. Abscisic acid is a (a) gaseous hormone (b) stress hormone (c) volatile hormone (d) liquid-gas mixture Which one of the following phytohormones is produced under water deficient condition and plays an important role in the tolerance response of plants to drought?

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

(a) Abscisic acid (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin A long day plant flowers only if exposed to a light period (a) more than its critical day length. (b) less than its critical day length. (c) equal to its critical day length. (d) slightly less than its critical day length. What type of plants will flower when short photoperiods are followed by long photoperiods? (a) Long-short day plants (b) Short-long day plants (c) Intermediate plants (d) None of these One set (I) of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set (II) night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place this plant (Set II)? (a) Long day (b) Darkness neutral (c) Day neutral (d) Short day Which one of the following is not a mechanical method for breaking seed dormancy? (a) Abrasions with knives (b) Abrasions with sandpaper (c) Vigorous shaking into the flask (d) By the action of microbes Which of the following effects is brought about by gibberellins but not by auxins? (a) Inhibition of leaf abscission. (b) Stimulation of cambial activity. (c) Stimulation of fruit development. (d) Breaking of dormancy in leaf buds. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by (a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio. (b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio. (c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio. (d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio.

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136

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Teeth of adult man, not present in milk dentition are (a) molars (b) premolars (c) canines (d) incisors Mammalian teeth are (a) acrodont (b) homodont (c) thecodont (d) polyphyodont Which of the following is a freely movable muscular organ that is attached to the floor of the oral cavity by the frenulum? (a) Jaws (b) Teeth (c) Tongue (d) Salivary glands The function of tongue is to (a) grind and crush the food. (b) position food for swallowing. (c) add enzymes and moisture to the food. (d) protect the opening of the pharynx during swallowing. A "1" flap called "2" prevents the entry of food into the glottis – opening of the "3" – during "4". Identify 1, 2, 3, and 4. 1

Epiglottis

Wind pipe Swallowing

(b) Bony

Stomach

Glissons capsule Pharynx

(d) Cartilaginous

Oesophagus Trachea

10.

11.

12.

13.

(a) Cartilaginous

Digestion

14.

Oral cavity Ingestion Mastication

The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the (a) serosa membrane (b) mucosa membrane (c) submucosa membrane (d) lumen ____ are needed in the diet as components of teeth and bone, regulators of acid-base balance and water balance, and parts of certain enzymes. (a) Carbohydrates (b) Fats (c) Minerals (d) Nucleic acids

15.

16.

Chapter

Digestion and Absorption

Crypts of lieberkuhn are present in (a) intestine (b) stomach (c) oesophagus (d) all of these The sphincter of Oddi is present between (a) oesophagus and cardiac stomach. (b) pyloric stomach and duodenum. (c) hepatic duct and cystic duct. (d) hepatopancreatic duct and duodenum. Which of the following does not produce any digestive enzyme ? (a) Acini of pancreas (b) Liver (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum The number of salivary glands present in human beings is (a) 5 pairs (b) 4 pairs (c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs Brunner’s glands are found in (a) submucosa of stomach (b) wall of rectum (c) submucosa of duodenum (d) mucosa of ileum Function of gall bladder is (a) storage of bile. (b) formation of enzymes. (c) synthesis of bile. (d) formation of bile salts. Where does bile go after it leaves the gall bladder? (a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum (c) Ileum (d) Caecum Which of the following is the structural and function unit of the largest digestive gland? (a) Kupffer cells (b) Hepatic lobules (c) Glissons capsule (d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn The common bile duct in human is formed by the joining of (a) pancreatic duct and bile duct. (b) cystic duct and hepatic duct. (c) cystic duct and pancreatic duct. (d) hepatic duct and pancreatic duct.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

The substrate for amylase is (a) proteins (b) fats (c) starch (d) cane sugar Digestive enzymes responsible for breaking down disaccharides includes (a) pepsin, trypsin and trypsinogen. (b) amylase, pepsin, and lipase. (c) sucrase, lactase, and maltase. (d) pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin. Salivary amylase is also known as (a) ptyalin (b) gastrin (c) glyoxylase (d) pepsin pH of saliva is (a) 6.5 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 9.5 Maltase converts (a) maltose to glucose at pH greater than 7. (b) maltose to glucose at pH lesser than 7.0. (c) maltose to alcohol. (d) starch to maltose at pH higher than 7.0. Which digestive organ mechanically and chemically transforms a food bolus into chyme? (a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach (c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine The disaccharidases are secreted with (a) saliva (b) gastric juice (c) intestinal juice (d) pancreatic juice Succus entericus is a term used for (a) the junction of ileum and colon (b) inflammation of intestine (c) vermiform appendix (d) digestive juice of intestine Enzyme trypsin is secreted by (a) duodenum (b) liver (c) pancreas (d) stomach The protein coated, water soluble fat globules are called (a) chylomicrons (b) micelles (c) chyle (d) monoglycerides Milk protein is acted upon by a gastric enzyme in infant mammals. The enzyme is ___________. (a) rennin (b) caesinogen (c) pepsinogen (d) pepsin Pancreatic juice helps in the digestion of (a) proteins and fats (b) proteins and carbohydrates (c) fats and carbohydrates (d) proteins, fats and carbohydrates Oxyntic cells are located in (a) Islets of langerhans. (b) gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin. (c) kidneys and secrete renin. (d) gastric epithelium and secrete HCl. Enzyme trypsinogen is changed to trypsin by (a) gastrin (b) enteropeptidase (c) enterogastrone (d) secretin

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

Which of the following enzyme digest milk protein in alkaline medium? (a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin (c) Rennin (d) Chymotrypsin Most of the fat digestion occurs in (a) rectum (b) stomach (c) colon (d) small intestine Muscular contraction in alimentary canal is called — (a) deglutition (b) mastication (c) peristalsis (d) none of these Enterokinase takes part in conversion of (a) pepsinogen to pepsin (b) trypsinogen to trypsin (c) protein into polypeptides (d) caseinogen into casein HCl of gastric juice (a) inactivates ptyalin and activates pepsin. (b) activates ptyalin and inactivates pepsin. (c) inactivates both ptyalin and pepsin. (d) activates both ptyalin and pepsin. Rennin acts on milk protein and changes (a) caesinogen into caesin. (b) caesin into paracaesin. (c) caseinogen into paracaesin. (d) paracaesin into caesinogen. Which cells of gastric mucosa secrete pepsinogen? (a) Parietal (b) Oxyntic (c) Chief cells (d) Goblet Which enzyme initiates protein digestion ? (a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin (c) Aminopeptidase (d) Carboxypeptidase Trypsin changes (a) fats into fatty acids. (b) proteins into peptones. (c) starch and glycogen into maltose. (d) maltose into its components. Most of the chemical digestion of food in humans is completed in the — (a) small intestine (b) appendix (c) ascending colon (d) stomach End product of protein digestion is — (a) sugar (b) amino acid (c) nucleotide (d) ammonia Which one of the following is the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans? (a) Maltase (b) Enterokinase (c) Trypsinogen (d) Chymotrypsin Which homeostatic function of the liver is controlled and monitored in the pancreas? (a) Deamination of amino acids (b) Release of glucose (c) Release of iron (d) Removal of toxins

EBD_7209

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138

Digestion and Absorption 44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

Diglycerides on digestion give (a) one fatty acid and one glycerol (b) two fatty acid and one glycerol (c) two glycerol and one fatty acid (d) two glycerols only Semi - digested food in intestine is called (a) chyle (b) chyme (c) bolus (d) none of these Which of the following enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice? (a) Chymotrypsinogen (b) Steapsin (c) Nuclease (d) Enterokinase Emulsification refers to (a) action of bile on breaking large fat droplets (b) action of gastric lipase on proteins (c) action of salivary amylase on starch (d) action of pancreas on fat droplets Protection of the walls of the stomach against the action of its own digestive juice (a) is controlled by a centre in the medulla of the brain. (b) results from the nervous reactions of the lining of the stomach. (c) results from the presence of an anti-enzyme chemical formed by the gastric gland. (d) results from the neutralizing, buffering and coating mucus covering its inner surface. A good source of lipase is (a) saliva (b) gastric juice (c) bile (d) pancreatic Juice Glucose, some amino acids and sodium are absorbed in to blood by ________. (a) simple diffusion (b) active transport (c) facilitated transport (d) the statement is incorrect since they are absorbed in lymph and not in blood. The ______ is primarily a storage chamber within the digestive system, while the ______ reabsorbs water, ions, and generates the faeces. (a) buccal cavity; midgut (b) crop; midgut (c) stomach; hindgut (d) buccal cavity; hindgut The main function of lacteals in the villi of small intestine is the absorption of (a) amino acids and glucose (b) glucose and vitamins (c) water and mineral salts (d) fatty acids and glycerol Under which of the following circumstances will insulin be secreted? (a) The blood sugar level in the liver is low. (b) The blood sugar level in the hepatic portal vein is low. (c) The blood sugar level in the islets of Langerhans is high. (d) The glycogen level in the skeletal muscle is high.

139

54.

55.

Jaundice may be caused by retarded function of — (a) lungs (b) kidneys (c) heart (d) liver ____i_____ is a diseased condition in which a person passes out watery stool frequently while ______ii_______ is known as infrequent elimination of dry stool. (a) i- Constipation, ii- Diarrhoea (b) i- Diarrhoea, ii- Constipation (c) i- Diarrhoea, ii- Vomiting (d) i- Constipation, ii- Vomiting

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 56.

57.

58.

59.

How do nutrients, absorbed by the small intestine, travel to the individual cells of the human body? (a) The nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine into the blood and move through the circulatory system to the body cells. (b) The nutrients move from the small intestine directly to the liver and then move through the lymphatic system to the body cells. (c) The small intestine forces the nutrients into the kidneys, where the nutrients are then dissolved in fluids used by the body cells. (d) The body cells send nerve impulses indicating a lack of nutrients to the small intestine, and the small intestine sends the nutrients back to the cells. Which of the following statements is correct regarding chylomicrons ? (a) They are undigested proteins. (b) They are undigested carbohydrates. (c) They are fat droplets coated with phospholipids. (d) They are fat droplets coated with glycerol and proteins. Which of the following statements is correct regarding enterokinase? (a) It is a hormone that prevents the secretion of gastric juice. (b) It is an enzyme that activates the enzymes of pancreatic juice. (c) It is an enzyme that activates the proteolytic enzymes of succus entericus. (d) It is a hormone that prevents the secretion of pancreatic juice. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) Brunner’s glands are submucosal. (b) Rugae are the irregular folds of inner gastric mucosa. (c) Glisson’s capsule is the connective tissue sheath of hepatic lobule. (d) Mesothelium or serosa lies in close proximity of the sub-mucosa.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

Which of the following is not the function of HCl in stomach? (a) Breaking down proteins into peptones. (b) Killing the bacteria ingested with food and drinks. (c) Promoting the formation of pepsin. (d) Softening fibrous food elements. What is common among amylase, renin and trypsin? (a) All are proteins. (b) All are proteolytic enzymes. (c) Produced in stomach. (d) Act at pH lower than 7. What will happen if bile duct gets choked ? (a) Faeces become dry. (b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralized. (c) There will be little digestion in intestine. (d) Little digestion of fat will occur. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans? (a) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth. (b) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen. (c) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+. (d) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries. Which of the following statement is true ? (a) Pepsin cannot digest casein. (b) Trypsin can digest collagen. (c) Pepsin cannot digest collagen. (d) Chymotrypsin can digest casein. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Saliva lubricates the food. (b) Tongue helps in chewing of food. (c) Salivary glands have protein digesting enzymes. (d) Bile does not contain any digestive enzymes. Which of the following is not the function of digestive system? (a) It allows your body to get the nutrients and energy it needs from the food you eat. (b) It breaks down large food molecules into smaller molecules that can be used by cells. (c) It converts foods to larger substances that can be absorbed and used by the cells of the body. (d) It converts food into soluble and diffusible products that can be absorbed by the blood. Which of the following statements are true regarding human digestive system? (i) Food is not digested in the gullet. (ii) There is no digestive juice in the mouth.

68.

69.

(iii) Food is digested completely in the stomach. (iv) The large intestine is shorter than the small intestine. (v) Inside the large intestine, most of the water from the undigested food is absorbed by the body. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (v) only (c) (i), (iv) and (v) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only Which of the following statements are correct regarding jaundice? (i) It indicates liver damage. (ii) It involves infrequent elimination of dry stool. (iii) It involves yellowing of skin and eyes. (iv) It increases absorption of food. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only Which of the following statements is correct regarding absorption of fatty acids? (a) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the small intestine. (b) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels at the small intestine. (c) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels from the blood stream. (d) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the large intestine.

EBD_7209

Biology

140

Digestion and Absorption

141

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS Choose the correct matching pair. (a) Renin – Protein (b) Trypsin – Starch (c) Invertase – Sucrose (d) Amylase – Lactose 76. Identify the correct set which shows the name of the enzymes from where it is secreted and substrate upon which it acts (a) Pepsin – Stomach wall – Protein (b) Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose (c) Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland –Lactose (d) Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid 77. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans with their absorption site and mechanism. Column-I Column-II (a) Fructose, Na+ – Small intestine, passive absorption (b) Glycerol, fatty acids – Duodenum, move as chylomicrons (c) Cholesterol, maltose – Large intestine, active absorption (d) Glycine, glucose – Small intestine, active absorption 78. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action of the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?

80.

75.

Lipase (a) Stomach : Fats ¾¾¾ ¾ ® Micelles Tryp sin (b) Duodenum : Triglycerides ¾¾¾¾ ® Monoglycerides

81.

82.

µAmylase

¾¾¾¾¾ ® (Maltose)

Pepsin

79.

(d) Small intestine : Proteins ¾¾¾¾ ® Amino acid Which one of the following four secretions is correctly matched with its source, target and nature of action? Secretion

Source

Target

(a) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall bladder (b) Gastrin Stomach Oxyntic lining cells (c) Salivary Salivary Mouth amylase gland (d) Rennin

Saliva

Action

Release of bile juice Production of HCl Breakdown of starch into maltose Small Emulsification intestine of fats

83.

Match column I (organs) with column II (functions) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Organs) (Functions) A. Mouth I. Reclaims water and salts B. Stomach II. Carries out most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients. C. Small intestine III. Releases amylase enzyme that break down carbohydrates. D. Large intestine IV. An acidic compartment that begins to break proteins into larger polypeptides. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III The given pair represent substrate-enzyme pair. Which of the following pair is (are) correct? A. Maltose – Lactase B. Protein – Pepsin C. Carbohydrate – Lipase D. Casein – Renin (a) A and B only (b) B and C only (c) A and D only (d) B and D only Match column I (food type) with column II their (enzymes) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Food type) (Enzymes) A. Starch I. Nucleases B. Protein II. Lipase C. Fats III. Amylase D Nucleic acid IV. Trypsin (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III Which of the following monomers are produced, when lipids are broken down by lipase? A. Nucleotides B. Amino acids C. Glycerol D. Fatty acids (a) A and C only (b) C and D only (c) C only (d) D only

84.

85.

86.

Match the following digestive processes given in column I with their correct description given in column II and then choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Digestive processes) (Description) A. Ingestion I. Elimination of digestible solids. B. Mechanical digestion II. Enzymatic degradation of food stuffs into simpler molecules. C. Chemical digestion III. Taking food into the digestive systems D. Defecation IV. Chewing, mixing, churning and segmentation of food. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II Match the following organic molecules given in column I with their correct description given in column II and then choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Organic molecules) (Description) A. Carbohydrates I. It is made of fatty acids and glycerol B. Proteins II. It is mostly ingested in the form of starch C. Nucleic acids III. It is built of long chains of amino acids D. Lipids IV. It is made of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I Which of the following substances involved in organic molecule digestion is correctly matched with their descriptions? (a) Salivary amylase- It begins lipid digestion in mouth. (b) Trypsin- It emulsifies fats for digestion. (c) Bile- It digests proteins in small intestine. (d) Maltase- It is a brush border enzyme that acts on disaccharides.

88.

(a) A= amylase, B = maltase, C = lactase, D = invertase (b) A = amylase, B = maltase, C= invertase, D= lactase (c) A = amylase, B = invertase, C = maltase, D= lactase (d) A = amylase, B = lactase, C = maltase, D = invertase. The diagram given below shows the human digestive system. Few structures are marked as I, II, III and IV. Which region of the human digestive system releases bile juice?

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

89.

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV The given figure shows a section of small intestinal mucosa showing villi. What is the function of structure marked as I in the given figure?

(I)

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 87.

The given flowchart shows the fate of carbohydrate during digestion in the human alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

To absorb amino acids. To carry blood. To transport fat To transport glucose

EBD_7209

Biology

142

Digestion and Absorption 90.

143

Refer the given diagram of digestive system to answer the question.

x 93.

94. Which of the following is associated with the structure marked as "X"? (a) It is a small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic microorganisms. (b) The undigested, unabsorbed substances enter into this structure through ileo-ceacal valve. (c) It helps in mechanical churning and chemical digestion of food. (d) Both (a) and (c) Directions (Qs. 91 and 92): Refer the given figure and answer the questions. This figure shows the diagrammatic representation of T.S of gut with few structures marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4

95.

Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of digestive juice by guarding which duct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Which two ducts are responsible for the formation of a duct that carry bile from the gall bladder and conduct it into the first section of the small intestine? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 1 Which of the following best describes the role of the structure marked as Y in the given figure?

1 Inner-circular Outer-longitudinal 3 4

91.

(a) Serves a minor role in the chemical digestion of fats. (b) Mucus is secreted to protect the oesophagus from the stomach enzymes. (c) Digestive enzymes are secreted as food passes from the oesophagus to the stomach. (d) Connects the mouth to the stomach and has no function in chemical digestion.

Which of the following structure forms glands in the stomach and crypts in between the bases of villi? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 92. Which of the following part is made up of a thin mesothelium with some connective tissue? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Directions (Qs. 93 and 94): The given diagram shows the duct systems of liver, gall bladder and pancreas in which few structures are marked as 1.2.3 and 4. On the basis of this figure answer the questions.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 96.

97.

In pancreatic juice, which of the followings are secreted in inactive form as proenzymes ? (a) Trypsin, chymotrypsin & carboxypeptidases (b) Pepsin, trypsin and chymotrypsin (c) Trypsin only (d) Trypsin and chymotrypsin only If the bile-pancreatic duct is blocked then which of the following will not be affected ? (a) Digestion of proteins (b) Emulsification of fats (c) Level of blood glucose (d) Digestion of starch

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

Which of the following is the correct chronological order for flow of food from mouth to anus? (a) Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large intestine (b) Large intestine ® Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small intestine (c) Small intestine ® Large intestine ® Oesophagus ® stomach (d) Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large intestine ® Oesophagus Which of the following occurs in the duodenum? (a) Absorption of vitamins and minerals. (b) Mixing of food with pancreatic juice and bile. (c) Mastication of food. (d) Absorption of water. From deep to superficial, what are the tunics of the intraperitoneal portions of the alimentary canal? (a) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa (b) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and serosa (c) Adventia, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa (d) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and adventia If for some reason our goblet cells becomes nonfunctional then this will adversely affect (a) production of somatostatin. (b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands. (c) maturation of sperms. (d) smooth movement of food down the intestine. The digestion of butter begins with (a) saliva (b) gastric juice (c) pancreatic juice (d) intestinal juice Removal of gall bladder in man would lead to (a) impairment of digestion of fats. (b) impairment of digestion of protein. (c) jaundice (d) increased acidity in intestine. During prolonged fasting (a) first fats are used up, followed by carbohydrates from liver and muscles and proteins in the end. (b) first carbohydrates are used up, followed by fat and proteins towards end. (c) first lipids, followed by proteins and carbohydrates towards end. (d) none of the above. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get? (a) 144 (b) 126 (c) 164 (d) 112 If pH of stomach is 7 then which component of food would be affected? (a) Starch (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) Sucrose

107. In case of taking food rich in lime juice, the action of ptyalin on starch is (a) enhanced (b) reduced (c) unaffected (d) stopped 108. If the chyme of a person who had orally consumed only starch as food is analysed before it enters the duodenum, it will show the presence of (a) maltose and glucose (b) dextrin and maltose (c) starch, dextrin and maltose (d) starch, dextrin and glucose 109. An adolescent human below 17 years of age normally has dental formula as 2, 1, 2, 0 2, 1, 2, 2 (a) (b) 2, 1, 2, 0 2, 1, 2, 2 (c)

2, 1, 3, 2 2, 1, 3, 2

(d)

2, 2, 3, 2 2, 2, 3, 2

110. Which of the following is the correct chronological order for the enzyme activity of some enzymes taking part in protein digestion? (a) Pepsin ® Trypsin ® Peptidase (b) Pepsin ® Peptidase ® Trypsin (c) Trypsin ® Pepsin ® Peptidase (d) Peptidase ® Trypsin ® Pepsin 111. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor? (a) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted into trypsin. (b) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin. (c) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen. (d) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin. 112. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the alimentary canal? (a) Salivary maltase ® Carboxypeptidase ® Trypsinogen (b) Pancreatic amylase ® Salivary amylase ® Lipases (c) Disaccharidase like maltase ® Lipases ® Nucleases (d) Salivary amylase ® Pancreatic amylase ® Disaccharidases 113. A person who is on hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have (a) less amino acids in his urine. (b) more glucose in his blood. (c) less urea in his urine. (d) more sodium in his urine.

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144

Digestion and Absorption 114. If the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen? (a) The pancreatic enzymes, specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently. (b) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly. (c) Steapsin will be more effective. (d) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteases and peptones. 115. What happens to the food when it enters from oesophagus to stomach? (a) Food mixes with juices and protein digestion starts. (b) Food mixes with juices and carbohydrate digestion starts. (c) Food quickly moves into small intestine. (d) Food quickly moves into large intestine. 116. The hydrochloric acid secreted by the gastric glands activates the enzyme _____i_____ while th e _____ii_____ secreted by gastric glands protects the lining of the stomach from the action of acid. (a) i- pepsin, ii- mucus (b) i- pepsin, ii- trypsin (c) i- amylase, ii- trypsin (d) i- amylase, ii- rennin 117. Which digestive processes takes place in the mouth? (a) Both chemical and physical digestion. (b) Chemical digestion only. (c) Physical digestion only. (d) Neither chemical nor physical digestion. 118. Following are given parts of small and large intestine. (i) Cecum (ii) Colon (iii) Jejunum (iv) Rectum (v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order food passes through them from the small intestine to the anus. (a) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) (b) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) (c) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) (d) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)

145

119. Which part is infected when a person is suffering from diarrhoea ? (a) Small intenstine (b) Large intestine (c) Stomach (d) None of these 120. Which process transported the bolus into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus? (a) Deglutition (b) Peristalsis (c) Vomiting (d) All of these 121. If the epiglottis does not function correctly, then what will happen to the human being ? (a) One might congest. (b) Peristalsis will discontinue. (c) Acid reflux disease will damage the oesophagus. (d) Swallowing will be difficult or impossible. 122. Study the statement given below and answer the question. “Even though the contents of stomach are very acidic, the stomach usually does not cause damage to itself”. Identify the reasons (i to iv) given below which are responsible for the above statement. (i) The release of gastric juices is controlled to avoid too high a concentration. (ii) The stomach lining is quick to repair itself. (iii) Mucus forms a thick protective coating for the stomach. (iv) Food and water dilute the gastric juices (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All of the above 123. If the large intestine becomes irritated and peristalsis increases then which of the following will result? (a) Indigestion (b) Diarrhoea (c) Constipation (d) Vomiting

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Which of the following has no specialized respiratory structures ? (a) Crab (b) Earthworm (c) Salmon (d) Ant 2. The structure which prevents the entry of food into the windpipe is (a) gullet (b) glottis (c) tonsil (d) epiglottis 3. Lungs are present in (a) mediastinum (b) pleural cavity (c) pericardial cavity (d) thoracic cavity 4. The structure which does not contribute to the breathing movements in mammals is (a) larynx (b) ribs (c) diaphragm (d) intercostal muscles 5. Intercostal muscles are found attached with (a) diaphragm (b) ribs (c) pleura (d) lungs 6. Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli from blood capillaries is (a) alveolar epithelium (b) cardiac epithelium (c) endothelium of blood capillaries (d) both (a) and (c) 7. The nose produces ____________ to put moisture in the air and catch dust and bacteria. (a) mucus (b) bronchi (c) cilia (d) oxygen 8. The smallest and thinnest tube in the lung is (a) trachea (b) larynx (c) bronchi (d) bronchiole 9. The path that leads from the throat to the lungs is known as (a) trachea (b) oesophagus (c) epiglottis (d) larynx 10. The amount of air remaining in the air passages and alveoli at the end of quiet respiration is called (a) tidal volume (b) inspirating reserve volume

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

Chapter

Breathing and Exchange of Gases

(c) inspiratory capacity (d) functional residual capacity The total volume of air a person can expire after normal inspiration is called (a) residual volume (b) vital capacity (c) expiratory capacity (d) functional residual capacity Functional residual capacity can be represented as (a) TV + ERV (b) ERV + RV (c) RV + IRV (d) ERV + TV + IRV The total lung capacity is represented by (a) Tidal volume + Vital capacity (b) Tidal volume + Residual volume (c) Vital capacity + Residual volume (d) Inspiratory + Expiratory reserve volumes When 1200 mL air is left in the lungs, it is called (a) vital capacity (b) tidal volume (c) residual volume (d) inspiratory reserve volume The volume of air breathed in and out during normal breathing is called (a) vital capacity (b) inspiratory reserve volume (c) expiratory reserve volume (d) tidal volume In anaerobic respiration (a) O2 is taken in. (b) CO2 is taken in. (c) O2 is given out. (d) CO2 is given out. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers following amount of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological contition. (a) 5 ml (b) 25 ml (c) 50 ml (d) More than 50 ml What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the atmospheric air as compared to that of alveolar air ? (a) pO2 lesser and pCO2 higher (b) pO2 higher and pCO2 lesser (c) Both pO2 and pCO2 lesser (d) Both pO2 and pCO2 higher

Breathing and Exhange of Gases 19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

As blood becomes fully O2 saturated, haemoglobin combines with____ molecule(s) of oxygen. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8 What percentage of oxygen is carried by haemoglobin ? (a) 90 (b) 98 (c) 23 (d) 73 Partial pressure of oxygen in inspired and expired air is ……. and ……. mm of Hg. (a) 100, 46 (b) 158, 40 (c) 158, 90 (d) 100, 95 p50 value denotes (a) percentage of oxygen (b) partial pressure of O2 (c) percentage of haemoglobin (d) percentage of oxyhaemoglobin Most oxygen is carried by the blood __(i)__. Most carbon dioxide is carried by the blood __(ii)__. (a) (i) attached to haemoglobin. (ii) in the form of bicarbonate ions. (b) (i) dissolved in plasma . (ii) dissolved in plasma. (c) (i) in the form of H+ ions . (ii) in the form of bicarbonate ions. (d) (i) attached to haemoglobin. (ii) attached to haemoglobin. Which of the following gases makes the most stable combination with the haemoglobin of RBCs? (a) CO2 (b) CO (c) O2 (d) N In mammals, carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory surface by (a) plasma (b) R.B.C. (c) W.B.C. (d) both (a) and (b) __(i)__ in CO2 in your blood, which causes __(ii)__ in pH, would cause your breathing to speed up. (a) (i) An increase, (ii) a rise (b) (i) An increase, (ii) a drop (c) (i) A decrease, (ii) a rise (d) (i) A decrease, (ii) a drop Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentration in (a) leucocytes (b) blood plasma (c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin can be promoted by (a) low pCO2 (b) high pCO2 (c) low body temperature (d) high blood pH Which of the following structures is the actual gas exchange surface in the mammalian respiratory system ? (a) Bronchus (b) Alveolus (c) Bronchiole (d) Trachea Residual air mostly occurs in (a) alveoli (b) bronchus (c) nostrils (d) trachea Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately _________________.

147

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

(a) 5ml of CO to the alveoli (b) 6ml of CO2 to the plasma (c) 4ml of CO2 to the alveoli (d) 7ml of CO to the plasma Asthma is caused due to (a) infection of lungs. (b) spasm in bronchial muscles. (c) bleeding into pleural cavity. (d) infection of trachea. Emphysema developes mainly because of (a) allergy or hypersensitization. (b) spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles. (c) cigarette smoking. (d) inflammation of the alveoli Respiratory mechanism is controlled by (a) central nervous system (b) sympathetic nervous system (c) parasympathetic nervous system (d) autonomic nervous system The respiratory centre, which regulates respiration, is located in (a) cerebral peduncle (b) vagus nerve (c) pons varolii (d) medulla oblongata The pneumotaxic centre that can moderate the function of respiratory rhythm centre is located in (a) dorsal side of medulla (b) ventral side of medulla (c) aortic arch and carotid artery (d) pons varolii Which of the following normally contains the highest concentration of oxygen ? (a) Body cells (b) Inhaled air (c) Air in the pulmonary trunk (d) Blood entering the lungs The volume of the air that leaves the lungs in human is measured by (a) respirometer (b) spirometer (c) sphygmomanometer (d) monometer Which of the following organ receives electrical messages from the brain for breathing in and out? (a) Diaphragm (b) Bronchi (c) Bronchioles (d) Alveoli Which of the following group are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings? (a) Pharynx, primary & tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles. (b) Trachea, primary & secondary bronchi, and initial bronchioles. (c) Larynx, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and initial bronchioles. (d) Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and initial bronchioles.

41.

Thoracic chamber is formed (A) by the vertebral column, (B) by the sternum, (C) by the ribs and on the (D) side by the dome shaped diaphragm. Identify A, B, C and D. (a) A – dorsally, B – ventrally, C – laterally, D – lower (b) A – ventrally, B – laterally, C – dorsally, D – upper (c) A – laterally, B - ventrally, C – dorsally, D – lower (d) A – dorsally, B - laterally, C – ventrally, D – upper

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Tracheal rings are of hyaline cartilage . (b) Dorsal side of thoracic chamber is formed by sternum. (c) Expiration occurs when there is negative pressure in lungs. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Diffusion membrane is made up of 3-major layers. (b) Solubility of CO2 is higher than O2 by 25 times. (c) Breathing volumes are estimated by spirometer. (d) High conc. of hydrogen ion s favours oxyhaemoglobin formation. With reference to human respiration, which is correct? (a) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation. (b) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary ventilation. (c) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation. (d) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar ventilation. Which of the following statement correctly defines Bohr effect? (a) Rise in p50 with a decrease in CO2 conc. (b) Rise in p50 with decrease in pH. (c) Rise in p50 with increase in O2. (d) Fall in p50 with decrease in pH. Which one of the following statement is correct? (a) All animals require a medium for cellular respiration. (b) In all animals oxygen is transported by blood. (c) All animals need oxygen for respiration. (d) All of the above The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it (a) maintains blood sugar level. (b) acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood. (c) functions as a catalyst for biological reactions. (d) forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases. Identify the correct statement with reference to transport of respiratory gases by blood ? (a) Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of carbon dioxide and carbonic anhydrase for transport of oxygen. (b) Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of oxygen and carbonic anhydrase for transport of carbon dioxide. (c) Only oxygen is transported by blood. (d) Only carbon dioxide is transported by blood.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans? (a) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis. (b) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin. (c) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi. (d) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration. Mark the correct statement. (a) Volume of residual air is higher than tidal volume. (b) Volume of complementary air is higher than tidal volume. (c) Volume of supplementary air is lower than residual capacity. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is active. (b) Inspiration is active process whereas expiration is passive. (c) Inspiration and expiration are active process. (d) Inspiration and expiration are passive process. Which of the following conditions is responsible for increase in ventilation rate of lungs ? (a) Increase of CO2 content in inhaled air. (b) Increase of CO2 content in exhaled air. (c) Decrease in O2 content of inhaled air. (d) Decrease in O2 content of exhaled air. What happens during breathing? (i) Size of our chest increases. (ii) Size of our chest decreases. (iii) Carbon dioxide is removed out from body. (iv) Air enters our lungs. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Air travels through (i) Nose (ii) Skin (iii) Trachea (iv) Mouth (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iv) (c) only (i) (d) only (ii) Which of the following statements are true/false? (i) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily because of its higher solubility. (ii) Approximately 8 -.9% of CO2 is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood. (iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes into red blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3 (iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the erythrocytes is basic. (v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance. (a) (i), (iii) and (v) are true; (ii) and (iv) are false. (b) (i), (iii) and (v) are false; (ii) and (iv) are true. (c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are true; (iii) and (v) are false. (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false; (iii) and (v) are true.

EBD_7209

Biology

148

Breathing and Exhange of Gases 56.

57.

Read the following statements and select the correct option. (i) Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes . (ii) In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with water and is transported. (a) Statement (i) is correct and is responsible for statement (ii). (b) Statement (i) is not correct but statement (ii) is correct. (c) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect. (d) Statement (i) is correct but not involved in statement (ii). Which one of the followings statements is not correct? (a) Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is called expiratory capacity. (b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of CO2. (c) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli. (d) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

149

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 63.

(Animals)

64.

(Mode of respiration)

A. Earthworm

Pulmonary

Human

II.

Branchial

Prawn

III. Tracheal

D. Insects IV. Cutaneous (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I Match the disorders given in column - I with symptoms under column - II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination. Column-I (Disorders)

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 58. Assertion: A sigmod curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against the pO2. Reason: Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5mL of O 2 to the tissues under n ormal physiological conditions. 59. Assertion: If two men, expire the same volume of air after normal inspiration, they have the same expiratiory capcity. Reason: Expirtory capacity includes tidal valume and inspiratory reserve volume. 60. Assertion: A rise in pCO2, H+ ions and temperature shifts the HbO2 dissociation curve to right. Reason: A rise in pCO2 or fall in pH decreases oxygen affinity fr haemoglobin. 61. Assertion: The abdominal muscles are primarily involved in generating pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere. Reason: The strength of inspiration and expiration can be increased by additional muscles in diaphragm and intercostal muscles. 62. Assertion: Emphysema is the permanent abnormal inflation of air space of teminal bronchioles or alveolar sacs.

Match the column I (Animals) with column II (Mode of respiration) and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II

65.

Column-II (Symptoms)

A. Asthma

Inflammation of nasal tract

Bronchitis

II.

Spasm of bronchial muscles

Rhinitis

III. Fully blown out alveoli

Emphysema

IV.

Inflammation of bronchi

Cough with blood strained sputum

(a) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I (b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III Listed below are four respiratory capacities (A-D) in column I and four jumbled respiratory volume of a normal human adult in column II. Column -I Column-II (Respiratory capacities) (Respiratory volumes) A. Residual volume

2500 mL

Vital capacity

II.

3500 mL

Inspiratory reserve volume III.

1200 mL

D. Inspiratory capacity IV. 4500 mL Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volume? (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV. (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II. (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I. (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II.

66.

67.

Match the column I (Organs) with column II (Functions) and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II (Organs) (Functions) A. Nose I. Stops food from going down into lungs. B. Epiglottis II. Produces sound. C. Pharynx III. Traps bacteria as well as dust. D. Larynx IV. Allows air to pass from nose to oesophagus. (a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I Which one of the following four organs of respiratory system is correctly matched with its characteristics? A. Bronchi – Two branches of the trachea that brings air into the lungs. B. Trachea – Small flap that prevents food from entering C. Diaphragm – Dome shaped muscle that pushes on the lungs during exhalation. D. Alveoli – Pair of organs that inflate as you inhale and deflate as you exhale. (a) A and B only (b) C and D only (c) A and C only (d) B and D only

70.

71.

C A

III IV heart

72.

69.

(a) I ® nasal-cavity (b) II ® pharynx (c) III®trachea (d) IV®lungs In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?

The given diagram represents the human respiratory system with few structures labelled as I, II, III and IV.

II III

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 68.

(a) To prevent food from entering into trachea. (b) To filter and warm the air. (c) To help in exchange of gases. (d) To catch dust and bacteria. In the given diagarm of human respiratory system which marked label (I, II, III & IV) is the common passageway where the nasal and oral cavities meet?

(a) A- Alveolar cavity- It is the main site of exchange of respiratory gases. (b) B- Red blood cell- It transports mainly carbon dioxide. (c) C- Arterial capillary- It passes oxygen to tissues. (d) D- Capillary wall- Here, exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place. In the given diagram of human respiratory system, few parts are marked as I, II, III, IV, V & VI. Choose the correct combination of labelling from the given options.

The exchange of gases takes place in which labelled structure? (a) I ® trachea (b) II ® Bronchi (c) III ® bronchioles (d) IV ® alvedi In the given diagram of human respiratory system what is the funciton of structure marked as X ? X

2 heart

EBD_7209

Biology

150

Breathing and Exhange of Gases

73.

151

(a) I- Nose, II- Bronchus, III- Larynx, IV- Diaphragm, V- Trachea, VI- Lung (b) I- Nose, II- Larynx, III- Bronchus, IV- Lung, V- Diaphragm, VI- Trachea (c) I- Mouth, II- Trachea, III- Larynx, IV-Lung, V- Diaphragm, Vi- Bronchus. (d) I- Mouth, II- Diaphragm, III- Trachea, IV- Bronchi, V-Larynx, VI- Lung In the given figure, label A represents ____________ while label B represents _________.

75.

The given figure shows the respiratory system. Identify the correct structure marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 whose contraction initiated the inspiration which in turn increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.

heart

3 4

1 2

A B 76.

74.

(a) A- Trachea, B- Bronchus (b) A- Alveolus, B- Bronchiole (c) A- Bronchiole, B- Trachea (d) A- Trachea, B- Bronchiole Refer the given figure and answer the question.

(a) 1-lung (b) 2-Diaphram (c) 3-pleural (d) 4-Alveoli The figure given below shows the mechanism of breathing. Identify the stage (X) of breathing explained & A, B and C marked in the figure.

Ribs and sternum

Volume of thorax

% saturation of haemoglobin

Rib cage

100

Diaphragm

80 60

(a) X – Expiration, A– raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed (b) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed (c) X – Expiration, A – raised, B – increased, C – contracted (d) X - Inspiration, A– raised, B – increased, C – contracted

40 20 2

12 14 partial pressure of oxygen (Kpa)

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the above figure? (a) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a sigmoid curve is obtained. (b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of carbon monoxide. (c) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2 as similar to Hb at different pO2. (d) None of the above.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 77.

78.

About 70% of CO2 is transported as (a) carbonic acid (b) darboxyhaemoglobin (c) bicarbonates (d) carbamino compounds Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and deoxyhaemoglobin at (a) low O2 pressure in tissue. (b) high O2 pressure in tissue. (c) equal O2 pressure inside and outside tissue.

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(d) all times irrespective of O2 pressure. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea does not collapse due to presence of (a) bony rings (b) turgid pressure (c) chitinous rings (d) cartilaginous rings Dissociation curve shifts to the right when (a) pH increases. (b) CO2 concentration increases. (c) O2 concentration decreases. (d) 2, 3 D-P-G decreases. During inspiration in mammals, the diaphragm becomes (a) dome shaped (b) raised highly (c) flat (d) static During oxygen transport, the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates oxygen to the cells because in tissue (a) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low. (b) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is high. (c) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low. (d) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high. Combining of haemoglobin with O2 in lungs can be promoted by (a) decreasing CO2 concentration in blood. (b) decreasing O2 concentration in blood. (c) increasing CO2 concentration in blood. (d) introducing CO2 into blood. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes (a) slow and deep. (b) faster and deeper. (c) shallower and slow. (d) there is no effect on breathing. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)? (a) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin increases. (b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases. (c) RBCs count increases. (d) RBCs count decreases. When, under certain conditions, the P 50 value of haemoglobin rises, the affinity of the pigment of combining with O2 will (a) remain same (b) rise (c) fall (d) first rise and then fall Low oxygen tension in the blood causes (a) coughing (b) yawning (c) hiccuping (d) sneezing Arrange the following events in the correct order as they occur during inspiration: I. Air flows into the lungs. II. Alveolar volume increases. III. Thoracic volume increases. IV. Pleural pressure decreases.

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V. Alveolar pressure decreases. (a) I – II – III – IV – V (b) III – IV – II – V – I (c) II – V – I – III – IV (d) IV – V – II – I – III Which of the following are the stages of respiration in correct order? A – Gaseous transport B – Cellular respiration C – Tissue respiration D – Breathing (a) A – D – C – B (b) D – A – C – B (c) D – A – B – C (d) D – C – B – A Vital capacity of our lungs is (a) total lung capcity minus residual volume. (b) inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume. (c) total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume. (d) inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air (a) that can be filled in lungs by forceful inspiration. (b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration. (c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration. (d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration. If a person is suffering from emphysema, his/her (a) bronchioles are found damaged. (b) alveolar walls are found damaged. (c) the plasma membrane is found damaged. (d) the respiratory muscle is found damaged. Number of RBCs per unit volume of blood is likely to be higher in a person living at high altitudes, because (a) air is clean and unpolluted. (b) more sunshine is available. (c) air is less dense. (d) vegetation gives out more O2. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient has been inhaling polluted air containing usually high content of (a) chloroform (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon monoxide (d) carbon disulphide Common feature in the alveoli of lungs and villi of intestine in mammals is that both (a) provide a large surface area. (b) have ciliated epithelium. (c) are suited for diffusion of gases. (d) have rich supply of blood vessels and lymph ducts. Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts opening into bronchioles in mammalian lungs is (a) inefficient system of ventilation with little of residual air. (b) inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage of residual air. (c) an efficient system of ventilation with no residual air. (d) an efficient system of ventilation with little residual air.

EBD_7209

Biology

152

Breathing and Exhange of Gases 97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

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Maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged from the blood in the ............... (a) capillaries-surrounding tissue cells. (b) arteries of the body. (c) left auricle of the heart. (d) capillaries surrounding the alveoli. After taking a long deep breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to (a) more CO2 in blood (b) more O2 in blood (c) less CO2 in blood (d) less O2 in blood A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2 (a) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues. (b) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise. (c) raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg. (d) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort? (a) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all. (b) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them. (c) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen. (d) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth. The urge to inhale in humans results from (a) rising pCO2 (b) rising pO2 (c) falling pCO2 (d) falling pO2 The pharynx functions as a ___i___, whereas the larynx functions as a ___ii___. (a) i- common passage for air and food; iipassageway for food only. (b) i- passageway for air only; iipassageway for air and food. (c) i- common passageway for air and food; iipassageway for air only. (d) i- block to bacteria; ii- passage for air and food. In man and mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through

153

(a) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ® trachea ¾¾ ® bronchioles ¾¾ ® bronchi ¾¾ ® alveoli (b) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ® trachea ¾¾ ® bronchi ¾¾ ® bronchioles ¾¾ ® alveoli (c) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ® trachea ¾¾ ® bronchi ¾¾ ® alveoli (d) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ® trachea ¾¾ bronchioles ® ¾¾ ® alveoli 104. The chloride shift in red blood cells is the movement of (a) cations into the cell to balance its uptake of chloride ions. (b) chloride ions from the blood into the glomerular filtrate for excretion. (c) chloride ions out of the cell to balance the release of hydrogencarbonate ions. (d) chloride ions into the cell to balance its uptake of hydrogencarbonate ions. 105. External gills, tracheae, and lungs all share which of the following sets of characteristics ? (a) Part of gas-exchange system, exchange both CO2 and O2; increase surface area for diffusion. (b) Used by water breathers; based on countercurrent exchange; use negative pressure breathing. (c) Exchange only O2; are associated with a circulatory system; found in vertebrates. (d) Found in insects; employ positive-pressure pumping based on crosscurrent flow. 106. Which of the following equation shows the role of carbonic anhydrase enzyme in the transport of carbon dioxide by blood? (a)

¾¾ ® H 2 CO3 ¬¾ ¾¾ ® HCO3– + H + CO2 + H 2O ¬¾ ¾ ¾ Oxidation

(b) C6H12O6 + 6 O2

6 CO2 + Reduction

(c)

C6 H12 O6 ® 2 C6 H5OH + 2 CO 2

(d) None of the above.

6 H 2O

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Lymph differs from blood in (a) absence of RBC (b) absence of WBC (c) excess of water (d) absence of protein Lymph is modified blood that contains (a) RBC and WBC (b) RBC, WBC and protein (c) WBC and all protein (d) all contents of blood except RBC and certain protein In blood (a) WBCs are more than RBCs (b) RBCs are more than WBCs (c) RBCs are less than platelets (d) Platelets are less than WBCs Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly? (a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes (c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils What is true about leucocytes ? (a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood cancer (b) These are produced in thymus (c) These are enucleated (d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls Which of the following is considered as the soldiers of body? (a) Lungs (b) Capillaries (c) Red blood cells (d) White blood cells Which of the following is responsible for ABO grouping? (a) Presence or absence of clotting factors. (b) Compatibility of blood groups durin g blood transfusion. (c) Presence or absence of surface antigens (A and B) on WBCs. (d) Presence or absence of two surface antigens (A and B) on the RBCs. What is correct for blood group ‘O’? (a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present (b) A antigen and b antibody (c) Antigen and antibody both absent (d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies

Chapter

Body Fluids and Circulation

Rh factor is named after (a) monkey (b) Drosophila (c) rat (d) man

10. When the blood of a foetus is agglutinated by its mother's Rh antibodies, then which of the following condition arises as a severe anaemia? (a) Immunization (b) Ectopic pregnancy (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis (d) Both (b) and (c) 11. __________ plays an important role in blood clotting. (a) Sodium (b) Chlorine (c) Calcium (d) Potassium 12. Which of the following cations is required for the conversion of prothrombin into active thrombin by thromboplastin? (a) Cu2+ (b) Fe3+ 2+ (c) Fe (d) Ca2+ 13. Clotting of blood is to (a) seal up wounds and prevent blood loss. (b) slow down the movement of blood inside the blood vessels. (c) trap oxygen inside the blood so that it can be carried around more easily. (d) trap harmful germs inside the blood and prevent them from harming the body. 14. Fish has ___(i)____ and ___(ii)___ circulatory system. (a) (i)- open, (ii)- single (b) (i)- open, (ii)- double (c) (i)- closed, (ii)- single (d) (i)- closed, (ii)- double 15. Open type blood vascular system is found in (a) earthworm (b) lizard (c) cockroach (d) toad 16. Which of the following set of animals has an incomplete double circulation system ? (a) Frog and crocodile (b) Shark and whale (c) Lizard and pigeon (d) Toad and lizard

Body Fluids and Circulation 17.

18.

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28.

Heart is covered by (a) peritoneum (b) pleural membrane (c) pericardium (d) visceral membrane Nodal tissue/musculature in human heart has (a) the ability to generate action potential due to any external stimuli. (b) two patches, one in atrium and other in ventricle. (c) purkin je fibres throughout th e ventricular musculature. (d) atrioventricular node, also called pacemaker. Pulmonary vein, carrying oxygenated blood, opens into (a) left auricle (b) right auricle (c) left ventricle (d) right ventricle The pacemaker of the human heart is (a) SA node (b) tricuspid valve (c) AV node (d) SV node Which one of the following blood vessel is without valves? (a) Artery (b) Pulmonary aorta (c) Vein (d) Systemic aorta Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the command from (a) Purkinje fibres (b) AV node (c) chordae tendinae (d) SA node The opening of auricles into ventricles on the right side is guarded by which valve? (a) Tricuspid (b) Bicuspid (c) Semilunar (d) Mitral valve Bicuspid valve allows blood from (a) right auricle to left ventricle. (b) right auricle to right ventricle. (c) left auricle to left ventricle. (d) post caval to heart. ‘Bicuspid’ term is applied to (a) a valve in heart and a bone of pelvic girdle. (b) a muscle in upper arm and a valve in heart. (c) a valve in heart and tooth surface. (d) a valve in heart. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans? (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas Which of the following has the thickest walls? (a) Right ventricle (b) Left ventricle (c) Right auricle (d) Left auricle A four-chambered heart is found in (a) mammals only (b) humans only (c) all vertebrates (d) some reptiles, all birds and mammals

155

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Sinu-atrial node in human heart is embedded in the wall of (a) sinus-venosus (b) interatrial septum (c) right atrium (d) atrioventricular septum Which term does not apply to human heart? (a) Pacemaker (b) Four chambered (c) Mitral valve (d) Neurogenic What is the function of valve? (a) To prevent blood from flowing into the aorta. (b) To push blood into the ventricle. (c) To push blood into the aorta. (d) To prevent backflow of blood into the left ventricle. A blockage in aortic valve would directly reduce blood flow to the _______. (a) heart (b) liver (c) lungs (d) brain In mammals the blood from the right ventricle goes to (a) systemic aorta (b) precavals (c) truncus arteriosus (d) pulmonary aorta The heart sound ‘dupp’ is produced when (a) tricuspid valve is opened. (b) mitral valve is opened. (c) mitral valve is closed. (d) semi-lunar valves at the base of aorta get closed. The first heart sound is (a) ‘LUBB’ sound produced at the end of systole. (b) ‘DUP’ sound produced at the end of systole. (c) ‘LUBB’ sound produced at the beginning of systole. (d) ‘DUP’ sound produced at the beginning of systole. Closure of which of the following valves makes louder sound of heart beat? (a) Mitral valve (b) Seminular valve (c) Auriculo-ventricular valve (d) Tricuspid valve Cardiac cycle in man takes about (a) 0.5 seconds (b) 1.0 second (c) 1.2 seconds (d) 0.8 seconds The pattern of contraction and relaxation of the heart is referred to as (a) blood pressure (b) arterial flow (c) blood flow (d) cardiac cycle ‘P’ wave of ECG occurs before the (a) onset of ventricular contraction. (b) end of arterial contraction. (c) beginning of atrial contraction. (d) none of the above. QRS is related to (a) ventricular contraction (b) auricular contraction (c) cardiac cycle (d) auricular relaxation

41.

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The largest artery in the body is (a) aorta (b) precaval (c) vena cava (d) pulmonary artery Pulmonary artery arises from (a) right atrium (b) left atrium (c) right ventricle (d) left ventricle Which circulation provides nutrients and oxygen to cardiac muscle tissue? (a) Pulmonary circulation (b) Systemic circulation (c) Lymphatic circulation (d) Coronary circulation Which structures are directly involved in the pulmonary circulation? (a) Right atrium, aorta and left ventricle. (b) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava. (c) Superior vena cava, right atrium and left ventricle. (d) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium. Which structures are directly involved in the "systemic circulation"? (a) Superior vena cava, right ventricle and left ventricle. (b) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium. (c) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava. (d) Right atrium, pulmonary trunk and left ventricle. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood? (a) Renal vein (b) Hepatic portal vein (c) Hepatic vein (d) Pulmonary vein Which of the following parts of heart possess semilunar valves? (i) Aorta (ii) Vena cava (iii) Pulmonary artery (iv) Pulmonary vein (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) In adult man, normal BP is (a) 100/80 mm Hg (b) 120/80 mm Hg (c) 100/120 mm Hg (d) 80/120 mm Hg Pulse beat is measured from (a) capillaries (b) arteries (c) veins (d) nerves Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as (a) heart failure (b) cardiac arrest (c) atherosclerosis (d) angina Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol is called (a) thrombosis (b) atherosclerosis (c) rhinitis (d) angina In arteriosclerosis (a) arterial walls become very thin and weak so that the blood oozes out of the walls. (b) sex linked heredity is involved. (c) blood coagulates even in the arteries. (d) arterial walls become inelastic and thickened.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

Mark the incorrect statement regarding normal ECG. (a) Patient is connected to 3 electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle). (b) ‘T’ wave represents atrial repolarization. (c) Q marks the beginning of ventricular systole. (d) R represents ventricular depolarization. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system (i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins. (ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced. (iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system. (iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting. Which two of the above statements are correct? (a) (i) & (iv) (b) (i) & (ii) (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv) What is true about RBCs in humans? (a) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2. (b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2. (c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma. (d) They do not carry CO2 at all. Find out the incorrect statement from the following. (a) Veins are typically larger in diameter than arteries. (b) Because of their small size, capillaries contain blood that is moving more quickly than in other parts of the circulatory system. (c) The walls of arteries are elastic, enabling them to stretch and shrink during changes in blood pressure. (d) Veins contain more blood than any other part of the circulatory system. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? (a) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney. (b) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment. (c) 120/80 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure. (d) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active. Cardiac output is/are (i) Product of heart rate and stroke volume. (ii) Product of auricular and ventricular volume. (iii) A process in which blood pumped in one minute.

EBD_7209

Biology

156

Body Fluids and Circulation

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

Which of the above statements is true ? (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) Which of the following statements is/are correct for blood group? (i) Blood group O is universal donor. (ii) Blood group AB is universal acceptor. (iii) Blood group A contains antigen B and anti-A antibodies. (iv) Blood group B contains antigen B and anti-A antibodies. (a) Only (i) and (ii). (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii). (c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv). (d) Only (i), (iii) and (iv). Which of the following statements is correct regarding joint diastole? (a) Both atria relax but ventricles contract. (b) Both ventricles relax but atria contract. (c) Both semilunar valves are open. (d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open. Which of the following statements is correct regarding pulmonary artery ? (a) It carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs. (b) It carries deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart. (c) It carries oxygenated blood from heart to lungs. (d) It carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart. Which one of the statement is correct with reference to the circulation of blood in a mammal? (a) Left auricle receives oxygenated blood. (b) Pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to the lungs. (c) Blood from the lungs is returned to heart through 2-veins, one from each lung. (d) None of the above. Which of the following statement is correct regarding lymph? (a) It transports oxygen to brain. (b) It transport CO2 to lungs. (c) It returns interstitial fluid to blood. (d) It returns RBCs and WBCs to lymph nodes. Which of the folowing statement best defines artery? (a) It carries blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ. (b) It carries oxygenated blood to the different organs. (c) It carries blood away from the heart to different organs. (d) It breaks up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells? (a) A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.

157

(b) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen. (c) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body. (d) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 66. Assertion : SAN is called the pacemaker of heart. Reason : The SAN can generate the maximum number of action potentials and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart. 67. Assertion : Lub is a heart sound which is produced during each cardiac cycle. Reason : It is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves. 68. Assertion : Saline water is not given to patients with hypertension. Reason: Saline water can cause vomiting and may drop blood pressure suddenly causing cardiac arrest. 69. Assertion : Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure. Reason : Blood pressure is measured by sphygmomanometer. 70. Assertion: WBCs accumulate at the site of wounds by diapedesis. Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium. 71. Assertion : Blood coagulates in uninjured blood vessels. Reason : Uninjured blood vessels release an anticoagulant heparin. 72. Assertion : Prothrombinase enzyme acts as antiheparin. Reason : Heparin prevents coagulation of blood in blood vessels. 73. Assertion : When there is a fall in the blood pressure due to loss of blood volume, this is compensated by vasoconstriction of veins. Reason : Veins hold the extra amount of blood which can be shifted to the arteries as required.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 74.

In which of the following options the types of heart is correctly matched to their respective group of animals? (a) Two chambered heart- Fishes and amphibians (b) Three chambered heart- Amphibians and birds (c) Four chambered heart- Birds and mammals (d) Three chambered heart- Reptiles and mammals

75.

76.

77.

78.

Which one of the following is a matching pair? (a) Lubb-Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole. (b) Dup-Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole. (c) Pulsation of the radial artery-Valves in the blood vessels. (d) Purkinje fibres-Initiation of the heart beat. In a standard ECG, which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart? (a) P-Depolarization of the atria (b) R-Repolarization of ventricles (c) S-Start of systole (d) T-End of diastole Match the following descriptions (given in column-II) of each type of blood cell to their names (given in column-I). Column-I Column-II (Blood cell) (Description) A. Erythrocyte I. Most abundant white blood cell, and the main phagocytic cell of the blood. B. Eosinophil II. Least abundant white blood cell; releases histamine granules. C. Lymphocyte III. Resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions. D. Neutrophil IV. Blood cell that contains haemoglobin and transports oxygen. E. Basophil V. Specialized antibodyproducing white blood cells. (a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II (b) A – I; B – II, C – III; D – IV; E – V (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – V Which of the following term (column-I) is correctly matched with its functions (column-II)? Column-I Column-II (Term) (Functions) (a) Plasma Straw coloured fluid that consists of suspended blood cells (b) Heart Site where exchange of nutrients and gases occur (c) Capillary A red colour fluid th at provides food to the cells (d) Blood Pumping station of the body

79.

80.

Match each area of the heart (column-I) with the structure (column-II) from which it receives blood. Column-I Column-II (Area of heart) (Receives blood from) A. Right atrium I. Left atrium B. Right ventricle II. Vena cavae C. Left atrium III. Right atrium D. Left ventricle IV. Pulmonary veins (a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer from the option given below. Column-I Column -II A. Cardiac cycle I. 72 / min B. Plasma II. 120/80 mmHg C. Systolic/Diastolic III. 0.8 seconds D. Haemoglobin IV. 12 -16 gms in every 100 ml of blood E. Heart beat V. 55 % of the blood (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I (c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 81.

82.

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted?

(a) Peak P and Peak R together - Systolic and diastolic blood pressures (b) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction only (c) Complex QRS - One complete pulse (d) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction The given diagram represents human heart with four chambers labelled as I, II, III & IV?

III

I II

EBD_7209

Biology

158

Body Fluids and Circulation

83.

159

Which labelled structure receives carbon dioxide rich blood from the body? (a) I- Left atrium (b) II- Left ventricle (c) III- Right atrium (d) IV- Right ventricle In the given diagram of human heart the mitral valve is located between which two parts of the heart?

86.

The given figure represents the pathway of blood throughout the body.

Lungs (4)

(3)

Heart (2)

(1)

Body tissues

B D

84.

(a) D and E (b) B and C (c) D and C (d) E and B In the human heart, blood from the lungs enters the heart through the left atrium, pumps into the left ventricle, out the aorta and through the body, and then returns into the right atrium, pumps into the right ventricle and exits to the lungs. Using the diagram, which set of letters (A, B, C, D, E) correctly represents the process describe above?

87.

Which of the following letter shows the incorrect activity of heart? (a) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles (b) R wave - Marks the beginning of the systole. (c) P- Electrical excitation (or depolarization) of the atria (d) T wave - Return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarization).

E B D

Identify the correct match of marked number 1, 2, 3 and 4. (a) 1- Artery (b) 2- Pulmonary vein (c) 3- Pulmonary artery (d) 4- Vein The given figure represents diagrammatic presentation of an ECG. Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity of the heart.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS

85.

(a) E, D, A, B, C (b) B, C, A, E, D (c) C, D, A, B, E (d) D, C, A, E, B Refer the given figure of human heart and identify the chamber (marked as 1, 2, 3 & 4) which receives most of the blood returning from the brain.

88.

89. 4 1 3

(a) I- Left atrium (c) III- Right ventricle

(b) (d)

II- Left ventricle IV- Right atrium

What is true about leucocytes ? (a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood cancer. (b) These are produced in thymus. (c) These are enucleated. (d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls. Which is the correct route through which pulse making impulse travels in the heart? (a) SA node ® AV node ® Bundle of His ® Purkinje fibres (b) AV node ® Bundle of His ® SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® heart muscles (c) AV node ® SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of His ® heart muscles (d) SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of His ® AV node ® heart muscles

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

If nerves of heart are cut, then heart will (a) beat rhythmically (b) stop (c) beat arhythmically (d) shrink Which one of the following will be the cardiac output (in litres per minute) of a heart that has a stroke volume of 0.07 litres and is beating at a rate of 90 per minute? (a) 63.30 (b) 63.00 (c) 00. 63 (d) 06.30 The blood returning to the heart through pulmonary vein has more (a) RBC (b) haemoglobin (c) oxygen (d) nutrient First heart sound (LUBB) coincides with which wave of ECG? (a) R-wave (b) T-wave (c) P-wave (d) Q-wave What happens when the pacemaker becomes nonfunctional? (a) Only the auricles will contract rhythmically. (b) The cardiac muslces do not contract in a coordinated manner rhythmically. (c) Only ventricles will contract rhythmically. (d) Auricles and ventricles contract simultaneously. Maximum amount of oxygen is lost from the blood in the (a) capillaries surrounding the tissue cells. (b) arteries of the body. (c) capillaries surrounding the alveoli. (d) left auricle of the heart. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate? (a) Whole blood from pulmonary vein (b) Blood plasma (c) Blood serum (d) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect? (a) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced. (b) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down. (c) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working. (d) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium. Which of the following set of events can occur simultaneously? (a) Auricular depolarization, ventricular depolarization, auricular systole. (b) Ventricular depolarization, auricular systole, ventricular diastole. (c) Auricular depolarization, ventricular repolarization, auricular diastole. (d) Auricular depolarizaion, ventricular diastole, auricular systole.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

If a person is loosing blood continuously due to injury then what will be the effect on his pulse and BP initially? (a) Pulse and BP both will fall. (b) Pulse will fall and BP will rise. (c) Both pulse and BP will rise. (d) Pulse will rise and BP will fall. During systemic circulation, blood leaves the ___(i)____ and _________(ii)______. (a) (i)- left ventricle, (ii)- goes directly to the aorta (b) (i)- right ventricle, (ii)- goes directly to the aorta (c) (i)- right ventricle, (ii)- moves to the lungs. (d) (i)- left ventricle, (ii)- moves to the lungs In normal human blood pressure, what does the "120" represent? (a) The maximum pressure that can be sustained by the arteries before bursting. (b) The lowest pressure in the arteries that will keep someone from fainting when they stand up. (c) The highest ideal arterial pressure for someone at rest. (d) The pressure in the veins. If a person had two-chambered heart (one atrium, and one ventricle) with the vena cava entering the atrium and the aorta leaving the ventricle then which of the following statement would be correct? (a) No oxygen would reach the cells. (b) No blood would reach the head and neck. (c) The blood would be unable to carry food to the cells. (d) There would be no blood circulation. Sinus venosus is/are present in which of the following animals? (i) Fishes (ii) Amphibians (iii) Reptiles (iv) Birds (v) Mammals (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must flow through I. Right ventricle II. Pulmonary veins III. Left atrium IV. Lungs V. Pulmonary arteries (a) I- V- IV- II- III (b) I- II- III- IV- V (c) III- V- I- II- IV (d) III- II- I- IV-V Which of the following is not correct for blood pressure? (i) It is not affected by atherosclerosis. (ii) It is typically lower in veins than in arteries. (iii) Diastolic pressure is higher than systolic pressure. (iv) It is usually refers to as venous pressure of the systemic circulation. (a) (i) & (iii) (b) (i), (ii) & (iii) (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (i), (iii) & (iv)

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160

Body Fluids and Circulation 106. Mother-foetus Rh blood type incompatibility disorder can occur if the mother is _____ and her foetus is ____. (a) Rh positive; Rh positive (b) Rh positive; Rh negative (c) Rh negative; Rh positive (d) Rh negative; Rh negative 107. "X" is a fibrous tissue of the membranous septum of the heart just above the septal cusp of the tricuspid valve. It separates the atrium and the ventricle of the same side. Identify "X". (a) Sino atrial node (b) Atrioventricular septum (c) Atrioventricular node (d) Interventricular septum

161

108. Which area allows the atria to completely empty as the ventricles fill with blood? (a) A-V node (b) A-V bundle (c) S-A node (d) Purkinje fibers 109. When a leopard runs after you, the increase in heart rate is probably due to the __________. (a) hypothalamus (b) sympathetic nerves (c) increase in blood pressure (d) medullary accelerator centre 110. The state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is called _____. (a) angina (b) cardiac arrest (c) heart attack (d) heart failure

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in (a) reptiles and bird (b) birds and annelids (c) amphibians and reptiles (d) insects and amphibians Ammonia is the main nitrogenous excretory material in (a) amphibians (b) turtles (c) tadpoles (d) reptiles Mechanism of uric acid excretion in a nephron is (a) osmosis (b) diffusion (c) ultrafiltration (d) secretion Why bony fishes, aquatic amphibian and aquatic insects are called ammonotelic animals? (a) They excrete ammonia as their excretory product. (b) They excrete ammonia as a least toxic nitrogenous waste product. (c) They excrete uric acid in the form of pellet and paste with a minimum loss of water. (d) These animals have nephridia as their excretory organ which helps to remove nitrogenous waste and maintain a fluid and ionic balance. Excretion of nitrogenous waste product in semi-solid form occur in (a) amniotes (b) desert animals (c) ureotelic animals (d) uricotelic animals The projections of renal pelvis are called (a) hiluses (b) calyces (c) medullary pyramids (d) renal columns The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to (a) the number of Bowman’s capsules. (b) sum of Bowman’s capsules and glomeruli.

10.

11.

12.

13.

(c) double the number of Bowman’s capsules. (d) sum of Bowman’s capsules an d Malpighian corpuscles. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule constitute (a) nephrotome (b) renal corpuscle (c) renal capsule (d) malpighian tubule In which part of the excretory system of mammals you can first use the term urine for fluid it contains? (a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Loop of Henle (c) Collecting tubule (d) Ureter Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are formed as extensions of (a) Cortex into medulla (b) Cortex into pelvis (c) Medulla into pelvis (d) Pelvis into ureter Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called (a) renal artery (b) renal vein (c) efferent arteriole (d) afferent arteriole Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid? (a) Loops of Henle (b) Peritubular capillaries (c) Convoluted tubules (d) Collecting ducts The efferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus forms a fine capillary network around the renal tubule called the ______________. (a) vasa recta

14.

Chapter

Excretory Products and Their Elimination

(b)

loop of Henle

(c) collecting duct (d) peritubular capillaries Juxta-glomerular apparatus is formed by cellular modification in the (a) afferent arteriole and DCT (b) efferent arteriole and PCT (c) afferent arteriole and PCT (d) efferent arteriole and DCT

Excretory Products and Their Elimination 15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

Which of the following accessory excretory structure eliminates NaCl, lactic acid and urea? (a) Kidney (b) Liver (c) Sebaceous gland (d) Sweat gland Which of the following components of blood does not enter into the nephron? (a) Urea (b) Water (c) Glucose (d) Plasma protein Kidney helps in the conservation of useful materials and excretion of wastes and therefore they receive 20% of the heart’s output of blood (as much as the heart and brain combined). On a percentage basis which substance is most completely reabsorbed by the kidneys? (a) Water (b) Glucose (c) Urea (d) Sodium The site and principal mechanism for the passage of glucose into the bloodstream in the human kidney is the (a) collecting duct, by active secretion. (b) distal convoluted tubule, by passive diffusion. (c) glomerulus, by selective reabsorption. (d) proximal convoluted tubule, by selective reabsorption. The part of the nephron impermeable to water is (a) proximal tubule (b) distal tubule (c) ascending limb of Henle’s loop (d) collecting duct Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by (a) active transport (b) diffusion (c) osmosis (d) brownian movement Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma is mainly due to (a) albumin (b) globulin (c) fibrinogen (d) sodium chloride The ascending loop of Henle is permeable for (a) ammonia (b) glucose (c) sodium (d) water Loop of Henle takes part in absorption of (a) potassium (b) glucose (c) water (d) urea In comparison to blood plasma, percentage of glucose in glomerular filtrate is (a) higher (b) equal (c) lower (d) nil Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy individual is approximately

163

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

(a) 100 ml/minute, i.e., 180 liters per day. (b) 125 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day. (c) 120 ml/minute, i.e., 100 litres per day. (d) 130 ml/minute, i.e., 120 litres per day. The maximum reabsorption of useful substances back into the blood from filtrate in a nephron occurs in (a) PCT (b) Loop of Henle (c) DCT (d) collecting duct A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates (a) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. (b) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline. (c) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin. (d) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin. The part of the nephron that helps in active reabsorption of sodium is (a) bowman’s capsule (b) distal convoluted tubules (c) ascending limb of Henle’s loop (d) proximal convoluted tubules Which region of the kidney nephron is the main site of amino acid reabsorption? (a) Glomerulus (b) Bowman’s capsule (c) Proximal convoluted tubule (d) Distal convoluted tubule Which of the following hormone is secreted from kidney ? (a) ANF (b) Erythropoietin (c) Rennin (d) Aldosterone Which of the following is directly responsible for increasing glomerular blood pressure and hence GFR? (a) Aldosterone (b) ANF (c) Angiotensin II (d) Renin In the renal tubules the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water is controlled by (a) aldosterone (b) vasopressin (c) growth hormone (d) renin The function of renin is (a) degradation of angiotensinogen (b) stimulation of corpus luteum (c) to reduce blood pressure (d) vasodilatation Volume of urine is regulated by (a) aldosterone (b) aldosterone and ADH (c) aldosterone, ADH and testosterone (d) ADH alone

35.

36.

37.

38.

The hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate is (a) oxytocin (b) vasopressin (c) calcitonin (d) relaxin Juxta-glomerular cells of renal cortex synthesizes an enzyme called (a) ADH (b) oxytocin (c) renin (d) urochrome Which one is an important constituent of renin angiotensinogen-aldosterone system? (a) JGA cell (b) Macular cell (c) Erythropoetin (d) Plasma cell The voluntary response to the distension of urinary bladder is (a) polyurea (b) micturition (c) mellitus (d) menstruation

43.

44.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 39.

40.

41.

42.

Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Vasa recta is not present in cortical nephrons. (b) Maximum number of nephrons in kidney are juxtamedullary type. (c) DCT of many nephrons open into collecting tubule. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to human kidney? (a) The peripheral region is called cortex and central medulla. (b) Malpighian capsules are present in the cortex region. (c) Blood enters glomerulus through efferent arterioles. (d) The concave part of kidney is called hilus. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following event is to be expected ? (a) There will be no urine formation. (b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed. (c) The urine will be more concentrated. (d) The urine will be more dilute. Almost all the aquatic animals excrete ammonia as the nitrogenous waste product. Which of the following statement is not in agreement with this situation? (a) Ammonia is easily soluble in water. (b) Ammonia is released from the body in a gaseous state. (c) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be eliminated as and when formed. (d) Ammonia gets converted into a less toxic form called urea.

45.

Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? (a) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes. (b) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water. (c) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3–. (d) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney’s function and regulation? (a) During summer when body loses lots of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed. (b) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed. (c) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release. (d) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II. Which of the following statement is correct regarding urine formation? (a) Filtration and reabsorption takes place before secretion. (b) Filtration an d secretion takes place before reabsorption. (c) Secretion takes place before reabsorption and filtration. (d) Reabsorption takes place before filtration and secretion.

46.

Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Counter-current flow of blood in vasa recta helps to retain the reabsorbed sodium in the renal medulla. (b) Glomerular filterate is protein free plasma. (c) Vasa recta carry glomerular filterate from distal convoluted tubule to the collecting duct. (d) Glomerular filterate in Bowman’s capsule is isotonic to the plasma.

47.

Which of the following statements are correct? (i)

Glucose has high threshold value.

(ii) Urine is concentrated in Henle’s loop. (iii) Haemodialyser removes urea, uric acid, glucose and proteins. (iv) In glomerulus, urea, uric acid, water, glucose and plasma proteins are filtered out. (a) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(b)

(ii), (iii) and (iv)

(d)

(i) and (iii)

EBD_7209

Biology

164

Excretory Products and Their Elimination 48.

165

Which of the following statements is/are true? (i)

Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule.

(ii) When the urine passes into the collecting tubule, it becomes hypotonic.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 55.

(iii) Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule. (iv) Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as it passes through the Henle’s loop. (a) (i) and (iv) only

(b)

(i), (ii) and (iii) only

(d)

(iii) only

56.

Reason : It is because of the fact that their main nitrogeneous waste product is urea. 50.

Assertion : Kidney maintains the osmotic concentration of the blood. Reason : Kidney eliminates either hypotonic or hypertonic urine according to the need of the body.

51.

Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, whereas in ascending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypotonic. Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to sodium, while ascending limb is impermeable to water.

52.

53.

54.

Assertion : Secreting hypotonic urine is effective in reducing urinary loss of water. Reason : Hypotonic urine is more concentrated and higher in osmotic pressure than the blood. Assertion : Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and is important in the control of sodium and potassium ion concentration in mammals. Reason : It upgrades sodium ion concentration in the ECF by promoting reabsorption of sodium ions from renal tubules and excretion of potassium ions in urine. Assertion : Main constituent of human urine is ammonia. Reason : If human urine is allowed to stand for some time, it smells strongly of ammonia.

57.

Match the excretory functions given in column-I with the parts of the excretory system in column-II. Choose the correct combination from the given options. Column-I Column-II (Function) (Parts of excretory systems) A. Ultra filtration I. Henle’s loop B. Concentration II. Ureter of urine C. Transport of III. Urinary bladder urine D. Storage of urine IV. Malpighian corpuscle V. Proximal convoluted tubule (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II Match the disorders given in column-I with their feature given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Disorders) (Feature) A. Uremia I. Excess of protein in urine B. Hematuria II. Presence of high ketone bodies in urine C. Ketonuria III. Presence of blood cells in urine D. Glycosuria IV. Presence of glucose in urine E. Proteinuria V. Excess of urea in blood (a) A - V; B -III; C - II; D - IV; E - I (b) A - IV; B - V; C - III; D - II; E - I (c) A - V; B -III; C - IV; D - II; E - I (d) A - III; B -V; C - II; D - I; E - IV Which of the following parts of the nephron given in column I is correctly matched with their functions given in column II? Column-I Column-II (Parts of the nephron) (Functions) A. Proximal convoluted I. Sodium is reabsorbed tubules actively in this region. B. Distal convoluted II. Sodium and water are tubules reabsorbed under the influence of hormone in this region. C. Descending limb III. Primary site of glucose and amino acid reabsorption. D. Ascending limb IV. Major substance reabsorbed here is water by osmosis.

58.

59.

60.

(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I Which of the following hormone/enzyme is/are correctly paired with its function? I. Renin – Enzyme that catalyses the formation of angiotensin I. II. Aldosterone – Regulates water reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule. III. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) – It is a powerful vasoconstrictor that stimulates the secretion of aldosterone. IV. Angiotensin II – Promotes reabsorption of sodium at distal convoluted tubule. (a) Only I (b) Only III (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV Which of the following is correctly matched with its function of a specific part of a human nephron? (a) Afferent arteriole – Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein. (b) Podocytes – Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule. (c) Henle’s loop – Reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate. (d) Distal convoluted tubule – Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries. Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with there excretory organs and excretory product. Animal (a) (b) (c) (d)

61.

Excretory organs

62.

Excretory product

Housefly Labeo (Rohu)

Renal tubules Nephridial tubes

Uric acid Ammonia

Salamander Peacock

Kidney Kidney

Urea Urea

Select the correct match of the types of organs given in column I with their role in excretion given in column II. Column I Column II (Types of organ) (Role in excretion) A. Lungs I. Secretes bile-containing substances like bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid hormones, vitamins and drugs. B. Liver II. Eliminates water and salts in sweat and substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes through sebum. C. Skin III. Remove large amounts of

CO2 (18 litres/day) and also significant quantities of water every day D. Kidney IV. Remove wastes (metabolic by-products) and regulate pH, ion concentration, volume and osmolarity of blood (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – IV; B – IV; C – III; D – I Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in column I with its location given in column II. Column I Column II A. Fall in GFR I. Activate the JG cells to release renin B. Angiotensin II II. Increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR C. Renin III. Carries out the conversion of angiotensinogen in the liver to angiotensin I. D. Aldosterone IV. Causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in blood pressure and GFR. E. An excessive loss of V. Activate osmoreceptors fluid from the body which stimulate the hypothalamus to release ADH from the neurohypophysis (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V (b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – IV (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 63.

The label X and Y in the given diagram of human urinary system represents

(X)

(Y)

EBD_7209

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166

Excretory Products and Their Elimination 66.

(a) X- Urethra, Y- Ureter (b) X- Ureter, Y- Urethra (c) X- Bladder, Y- Urethra (d) X- Ureter, Y- Bladder 64.

167

Which is the correct order for the path taken by urine after it leaves the kidney?

III

The label X represents ___________ that function in ______________. (a) Vasa recta- Reabsorption of water, minerals and digestive end products. (b) Henle's loop- Filtration of plasma leaving the blood. (c) Vasa recta- Filtration of plasma leaving the blood. (d) Henle's loop- Reabsorption of water, minerals and digestive end products. 67. Which blood component would not usually pass through the membranes from region A to region B? (a) Mineral salts (b) Red blood cells (c) Urea (d) Water 68. After the blood enters the kidney, it travels to the ____________. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Directions for (Q. 69 to 72): Refer the given figure of nephron showing blood vessels and duct and answer the questions.

(a) I ® II ® III (c) II ® III ® I 65.

(b) (d)

III ® I ® II II® I ® III

The given figure shows the longitudinal section of kidney with few structures labelled as I, II, III & IV identify renal vein in the given figure.

I II III

69.

(a) I

(b)

(c) III (d) IV Directions for (Q. 66 to 68): Refer the given diagrammatic representation of a nephron of human excretory system and answer the following questions. A B C

70.

71.

72.

Which parts in the above figure have minimum reabsorption and play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 5 and 6 (d) 7 and 8 Cells of which part is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium that increases the surface area for reabsorption? Identify the name also. (a) 3, Descending limb of loop of Henle (b) 5, Vasa recta (c) 6, Proximal convoluted tubule (d) 7, Collecting duct Which part is capable of reabsorption of HCO3 - and selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 Which structures have an ability to produce the concentrated urine? (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 5 (c) 6, 7, 8 (d) 2, 4, 7

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

Workers in deep mines usually suffer from dehydration because (a) water is lost due to evaporation. (b) water is lost due to defecation. (c) water is lost in the form of urine. (d) water is lost along with salts in the form of sweat. Which of the following sets of animals produce the same substances as their chief excretory product? (a) Fish, pigeon and frog (b) Camel, housefly and snake (c) Frog, monkey and dog (d) Amoeba, ant and antelope Filtration slits are formed by (a) endothelial lining of glomerular capillaries. (b) inner epithelium of Bowman’s capsule. (c) basement membrane. (d) the participation of all of these. The cells named podocytes occur in (a) inner wall of Bowman’s capsule (b) outer wall of Bowman’s capsule (c) in the wall of glomerulus (d) in the wall of Henle’s loop Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when (a) hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure. (b) osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure. (c) capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomerular hydrostatic pressure. (d) colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressure remain less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure. Filtration fraction is the ratio of (a) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to renal plasma flow (RPF) (b) glomerular filtrate to urine (c) haemoglobin to oxyhaemoglobin (d) O2 to CO2 In a mammalian kidneys, Bowman’s capsules occur in (i) while loops of Henle are situated in (ii) . (a) (i) – cortex, (ii) – medulla (b) (i) – medulla, (ii) – cortex (c) (i) – cortex, (ii) – pelvis (d) (i) – pelvis, (ii) – medulla Urine is hypertonic (a) in Bowman’s capsule. (b) in PCT. (c) in the middle of descending & ascending limb of Henle’s loop. (d) at the end of ascending limb of Henle’s loop. Diuresis is a condition characterized by (a) increase in urine volume. (b) increased glucose excretion. (c) decrease in urine volume. (d) decrease in electrolyte balance.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

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90.

In nephron water absorption is maximum in (a) proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). (b) ascending limb of Henle. (c) descending limb of Henle. (d) distal convoluted tubule (DCT). Human urine contains (a) 95% water, 2.6% urea, 2% salts and some uric acid. (b) 99% water and 1% urea. (c) 92% water and 8% salts. (d) 90% water, 8% uric acid and 2% proteins. Glomerular filtrate contains (a) blood without blood cells and proteins (b) plasma without sugar (c) blood with proteins but without cells (d) blood without urea __i___ and ___ii___ carries the waste products. (a) i- Renal artery, ii- Renal vein (b) i- Renal vein, ii- Urethra (c) i- Renal vein, ii- Ureter (d) i- Renal artery, ii-Ureter The urine under normal conditions does not contain glucose because (a) the normal blood sugar is fructose. (b) glucose of blood is not filtered in the glomerulus. (c) glucose in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the uriniferous tubules. (d) glucose in glomerular filtrate is converted into glycogen. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption, which one of the following will not help in maintenance of blood volume? (a) increased ADH secretion. (b) decreased glomerular filtration. (c) increased arterial pressure in kidneys. (d) decreased arterial pressure in kidneys. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in response to the increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Which of the followings is not the function of ANF? It (a) stimulates aldosterone secretion. (b) inhibits the release of renin from JGA. (c) stimulates salt loss in urine. (d) inhibits sodium reabsorption from collecting duct. Through the thick segment of ascending limb of Henle’s loop the (a) NaCl can pass by active transport from filtrate to the interstitial fluid. (b) NaCl can pass by passive transport into interstitial fluid. (c) NaCl cannot pass from the filtrate to interstitial fluid. (d) Water can pass freely from filtrate to interstitial fluid. Which of the following is likely to accumulate in dangerous proportion in the blood of a person whose kidney is not working properly?

EBD_7209

Biology

168

Excretory Products and Their Elimination

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(a) Ammonia (b) Urea (c) Lysine (d) Sodium chloride If excess water passes out from tissues without being restored by kidneys, the cells would (a) burst open and die (b) not be affected at all (c) extract water from plasma (d) shrivel and die There is no sugar in urine. The blood entering the kidney has more sugar than leaving the kidney because (a) sugar is used by kidney cells in metabolism. (b) sugar is absorbed by bladder. (c) sugar is absorbed by proximal convoluted tubule. (d) sugar is absorbed in Loop of Henle. In human beings the capsular urine entering the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is (a) isotonic to blood (b) hypotonic to blood (c) hypertonic to blood (d) isotonic to sea water If the diameter of afferent renal arteriole is decreased and that of efferent renal arteriole increased, ultra filtration will (a) be faster (b) be slower (c) not take place (d) take place in the same speed What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed? (a) There will be no micturition (b) Urine will not collect in the bladder (c) Micturition will continue (d) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder In a kidney machine, which of the following passes from the blood to the dialysis fluid? (a) Glucose (b) Plasma protein (c) Red blood cells (d) Urea Excretion means (a) removal of substances which have never been a part of body. (b) removal of faecal matter from the body. (c) removal of substances not required in the body. (d) all of the above. Urine of a human suffering from diabetes inspidus is (a) concentrated with glucose (b) concentrated without glucose (c) watery with glucose (d) watery without glucose Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron ? (a) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule. (b) Henle’s loop : Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate.

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(c) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of K ions into the surrounding blood capillaries. (d) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerular towards renal vein. Which one of the following enables the mammalian kidney to regulate water reabsorption during states of dehydration? (a) The cells of the tubules detect the osmotic pressure of the blood. (b) Water is extracted from the glomerular filtrate in the proximal tubules. (c) The kidney produces a hypotonic urine. (d) Hormones increase the permeability of the collecting ducts. If the afferent arteriole that supplies blood to the glomerulus becomes dilated, (a) the protein concentration of the filtrate decreases. (b) hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus decreases. (c) the glomerular filtration rate increases. (d) all of the above "X" causes reabsorption of "Y" and water from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in "Z" and glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Identify X, Y and Z. (a) X: ADH; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure (b) X: ADH; Y: K+; Z: Blood pressure (c) X: Aldosterone; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure (d) X: Aldosterone; Y: K+; Z: Ionic concentration Under normal conditions which one is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule? (a) Salts (b) Urea (c) Glucose (d) Uric acid Identify the parts mentioned below which constitute a part of single uriniferous tubule. i. Loop of Henle. ii. Collecting duct iii. Bowman's capsule iv. Distal convoluted tubule (a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv (c) i, iii and iv (d) All of the above A patient was diagnosed that one process of his excretory system was not functioning properly due to which his urine is not concentrating. Identify the organ of the excretory system on which concentration of urine depends. (a) Collecting duct (b) Bowman's capsule (c) Length of loop of Henle (d) Proximal convoluted tubules Which are the following group of hormones participate in the regulation of the renal function? (a) ADH, TSH and ANF (b) PCT, TSH and ANF (c) ADH, DCT and Aldosterone (d) ADH, ANF and Aldosterone

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The macrophages in human body exhibit (a) ciliary movement (b) amoeboid movement (c) no movement (d) movement with the blood flow only Striated muscle fibres are found in (a) urinary bladder (b) lungs (c) gall bladder (d) leg muscles Smooth muscle is (a) found in walls of heart only. (b) found in the walls of all the hollow organs except heart. (c) attached to the bones only. (d) found only in the walls of alimentary canal. Cardiac muscles are different from that of skeletal muscles as the former are

(a) striated but involuntary. (b) non striated and involuntary. (c) smooth or unstriated. (d) voluntary in action. Striations in the striated muscles are due to (a) absence of myofilaments. (b) presence of myofilaments. (c) specialized arrangement of myofilaments. (d) projections of myosin. Which set clearly identify striated muscles? (a) Cylindrical, Syncytial and Unbranched (b) Spindle, Unbranched and Uninucleated (c) Cylindrical, Striped and Nucleated (d) Cylindrical, Striped and Branched Actin protein occurs in which of the following two forms ? (a) Polymeric F- actin and monomeric G- actin (b) Monomeric F- actin and polymeric G-actin

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Chapter

Locomotion and Movement

(c) The tail and a head (d) F-actin and G- actin, but both globular. Anisotropic band is (a) thick and dark (b) thin and dark (c) thick and light (d) thin and light A-band of the myofibril contains (a) only thick filaments (b) only thin filaments (c) both thick and thin filaments (d) no filaments Troponin (a) produces sliding movement of microtubules (b) contains globular head (c) binding to Ca+2 produces skeletal muscle contraction. (d) covers the active site of actin. During muscle contraction in humans the (a) actin filaments shorten. (b) sarcomere does not shorten. (c) A-band remain same. (d) A, H and I bands shorten. A sarcomere is best described as a (a) movable structural unit within a myofibril bounded by H zones. (b) fixed structural unit within a myofibril bounded by Z lines. (c) fixed structural unit within a myofibril bounded by A bands. (d) movable structural unit within a myofibril bounded by Z lines. Which muscle protein acts as ATPase? (a) Actin (b) Troponin (c) Myosin (d) Tropomyosin During resting stage the binding site of actin for myosin remains masked by (a) troponin (b) G-actin (c) tropomyosin (d) meromyosin Which of the following is the store house of calcium in muscles? (a) Sarcosome (b) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (c) Creatine phosphate (d) Sarcomere

Locomotion and Movement 16.

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Red muscle fibres are rich in (a) golgi bodies (b) mitochondria (c) lysosomes (d) ribosomes During fatigue (a) muscles cannot relax. (b) muscles fail to be stimulated. (c) blood supply to muscles stops. (d) nerve supply to muscles become inactive. The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at the_______ (a) motor unit (b) synaptic cleft (c) action potential (d) neuromuscular junction In mammals the lower jaw is made of (a) maxilla (b) dentary (c) mandible (d) ethmoid Hyoid bone is located (a) at the top of the buccal cavity. (b) at the floor of the buccal cavity. (c) in front of the skull. (d) behind the skull. Which of the following is a single U shaped bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull? (a) Hyoid (b) Malleus (c) Sacrum (d) Scapula Which of the following is not part of axial skeleton? (a) Sacrum (b) Sternum (c) Mandible (d) Humerus The vertebral formula of human adult is (a) C7T12L5S5Cd1 (b) C7T12L 5S5Cd5 (c) C7T12L5S5Cd4 (d) C7T12L5S4Cd4 Part of the body having a single pair of bones is called (a) pelvic girdle (b) external ear (c) wrist (d) lower jaw Which of the following vertebrae are fused? (a) Cervical (b) Sacral (c) Lumber (d) Thoracic Glenoid cavity is found in (a) pelvic girdle (b) skull (c) pectoral girdle (d) sternum Function of long bones in adult mammals is to provide (a) support only. (b) support and produce RBCs only. (c) support and produce WBCs only. (d) support and produce RBCs and WBCs. Number of floating ribs in human body is (a) two pairs (b) three pairs (c) five pairs (d) six pairs

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A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur head is (a) acetabulum (b) glenoid cavity (c) sigmoid notch (d) obturator foramen 30. Elbow joint is an example of (a) hinge joint (b) gliding joint (c) ball and socket joint (d) pivot joint 31. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of (a) 3 vertebra (b) 4 vertebra (c) 5 vertebra (d) 6 vertebra 32. An example of gliding joint is (a) humerus and glenoid cavity (b) femur and tibio-fibula (c) occipital condyle and odontoid process (d) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae 33. Identify the joint between sternum and the ribs in humans. (a) Fibrous joint (b) Gliding joint (c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Angular joint 34. The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate our head left to right is (a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint (c) saddle joint (d) ellipsoid joint 35. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in the synovial joint causes (a) rheumatoidal arthritis (b) gout (c) osteoarthritis (d) muscular dystrophy 36. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder ? (a) Myasthenia gravis (b) Osteoporosis (c) Muscular dystrophy (d) Gout

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 37.

Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) All movements lead to locomotion. (b) Ciliary movement help in passage of ova through female reproductive tract. (c) Microfilaments are involved in amoeboid movement. (d) In Paramecium, the cilia help in movement of food through cytopharynx and in locomotion as well. 38. Which of the following is not the feature of red muscle fibres? (a) They have plenty of mitochondria. (b) They have high content of myoglobin. (c) They have high amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum. (d) They are called aerobic muscles.

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What is not true about human skull? (a) It is dicondylic. (b) It includes 6 ear ossicles. (c) It includes 14 facial bones. (d) Hyoid is not included in skull bones. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) All striated muscles are voluntary. (b) Visceral muscles are faintly striated. (c) Cardiac muscles are not striated. (d) All non-striated muscles are involuntary. Read the following statements (A to D) and select the one option that contains both correct statements. A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light band. B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line. C. The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band. D. Light band contains only thin filaments. (a) A and D (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) B and D During muscle contraction. (a) chemical energy is changed to electrical energy. (b) mechanical energy is changed to chemical energy. (c) chemical energy is changed to physical energy. (d) chemical energy is changed to mechanical energy. Contractile tissues have the following features. (i) They are mesodermal in origin. (ii) They contain stretch receptors. (iii) Rhythmic contractions are seen in them. (iv) They do not fatigue during the life of the animal. Which of the above are characteristics of sphincters? (a) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these Which one of the following is the correct description of certain part of a normal human skeleton? (a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint. (b) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles. (c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs. (d) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system. (a) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments. (b) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium. (c) Muscular dystrophy – Age related shortening of muscles. (d) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans. (a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.

Biology (b) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae. (c) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint. (d) The decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people. 47. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets elongated. (ii). Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate. (iii) Muscle contraction is initiated by the signal sent by CNS via a sensory neuron. (iv) Repeated activation of muscle can lead to lactic acid accumulation. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 48. According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, (a) actin binds ATP and breaks it apart as actin pulls against myosin. (b) calcium ions are released from myosin as the filaments slide by. (c) the thick and thin filaments do not change length during this process. (d) all of the above 49. Read the following 4-statements (i – iv) and accordingly mark the option that has both correct statements. (i) Cardiac fibres are branched with one or more nuclei. (ii) Smooth muscles are unbranched and cylindrical. (iii) Striated muscles can be branched or unbranched. (iv) Involuntary muscles are non-striated. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)

EBD_7209

172

Locomotion and Movement 53.

Assertion : Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint. Reason :Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage lead to this. 54. Assertion : Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints. Reason : Synovial fluid is present here. 55. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful. Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 56.

Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair. Pairs of skeletal parts Category (a) Sternum and ribs – Axial skeleton (b) Clavicle and glenoid – Pelvic girdle cavity (c) Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton (d) Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles 57. Which of the following pair shows the correct characteristics with an example of a synovial joint in humans? Characteristics Examples (a) Fluid filled between – Skull bones two joints, provides cushion (b) Fluid filled synovial – Joint between cavity between two atlas and axis bones (c) Lymph filled between – Gliding joint two bones, limited between movement carpals (d) Fluid cartilage – Knee joint between two bones, limited movements 58. Which of the following pairs of joints and its location is correctly matched? (a) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae (b) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae (c) Cartilaginous joint– Skull bones (d) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges 59. Which of the following human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective category? Pairs of skeletal parts Category A. Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton B. Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles C. Sternum and ribs – Axial skeleton D. Clavicle and glenoid – Pelvic girdle cavity

173

(a) A and B only (b) A, B and C only (c) A, B, and D only (d) All of the above 60. Match column I (types of synovial joints) with column II (bones involved) and choose the correct option. Column I Column II (Type of synovial joint) (Bone involved) A. Ball and Socket joint I. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb B. Hinge joint II. Humerus and pectoral girdle C. Pivot joint III. Knee D. Saddle joint IV. Atlas and axis (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I 61. Which of the following option shows the correctly matched bones (given in column I) with its pair (given in column II)? Column-I Column-II A. Carpals I. Bones that form the fingers and toes B. Tarsals II. Bones that form wrist C. Phalanges III. Bones that form the palms of the hands D. Metatarsals IV. Bones that form the ankles (a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I (d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II 62. Which of the following functional characteristics of muscle is correctly matched with its appropriate descriptive term? I. Elasticity- Ability of a muscle fibre to recoil and resume its resting length after being stretched. II. Excitability- Ability to respond to any change in the environment (inside or outside the body) III. Extensibility- Ability to be stretched IV. Contractility- Ability to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated (a) I and III only (b) II and IV only (c) I, II, and III only (d) All of these 63. Match the name of bone given in column I with their numbers given in column II. Column-I Column-II A. Thoracic I. 8 B. Wrist bones II. 2 pairs C. False ribs III. 12 D. Metatarsal IV. 3 pairs

Skull (cranial & facial) V. 26 VI. 5 VII. 22 A B C D E (a) I VI II V III (b) III I IV VI VII (c) I VII III V II (d) II V VII I IV 64. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Striated appearance of I. Distribution pattern of myofibril actin and myosin B. Store house of calcium II. Sarcoplasmic reticulum ions C. Energy released III. Helps myosin head to bind from ATP hydrolysis to exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge D. Globular head of IV. Active ATPase enzyme meromyosin and has binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin. A B C D (a) I II III IV (b) III I IV II (c) II I III IV (d) III IV II I 65. Which of the following match is incorrect? (a) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs - do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the sixth rib with the help of hyaline cartilage. (b) Glenoid cavity - articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint. (c) Fibrous joint - flat skull bones which fuse end-toend with the help of dense fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures, to form the cranium. (d) Increase in Ca++ level - leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 66.

Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human hindlimb as seen from the front. It has certain mistakes in labelling. Identify the two bones which are not correctly labelled.

(a) Tibia and Tarsals (b) Femur and Fibula (c) Fibula and Phalanges (d) Tarsals and Femur 67. In the given diagram of skull, what does “I” represent? (a) Frontal bone (b) Temporal bone (c) Occipital bone (d) Parietal bone

(I)

68.

The diagram given below shows the pelvic girdle and lower limb. V

IV I

III

Parts labelled as ‘I’, ‘II’, ‘III’, ‘IV’ and ‘V’ respectively indicate (a) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum (b) Pubis, Tibia, Femur, Ilium and Sacrum (c) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum (d) Pubis, Femur, Tibia, Ilium and Sacrum 69. The given diagram of human skeleton system shows types of ball and socket joint. Identify the joints which are marked as I, II, III, IV and V

I II III IV

Femur

Fibula

V Tibia Tarsals Phalanges

(a) I and II (c) III and IV

(b) II and IV (d) IV and V

EBD_7209

Biology

174

Locomotion and Movement 70.

175

The given diagram represents the bones of human arm. Identify the bones marked as I, II, III & IV.

73.

The label X in the given figure of an act in filament represents X

IV I

(a) actin (b) myosin (c) tropomyosin (d) troponin 74. The given figure represents the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B in the figure represents?

II III

I II III IV (a) Clavicle Ulna Radius Humerus (b) Humerus Radius Ulna Scapula (c) Scapula Radius Ulna Clavicle (d) Humerus Ulna Radius Scapula 71. Which two bones in the given figure form a hinge joint?

Myosin head (high-energy configuration)

ADP P1

A Thin filament

ATP hydrolysis

ADP

ADP Thick filament P1

IV I II III

ATP ATP

Myosin head (low-energy configuration)

(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I and IV (d) II and III 72. The given diagram shows a human skeleton. Which of the following correctly identifies the bones marked as I, II, III & IV?

I II

III IV

(a) (b) (c) (d)

I Tibia Radius Ulna Fibula

II Fibula Ulna Radius Tibia

III Radius Tibia Tibia Radius

IV Ulna Fibula Fibula Ulna

(a) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming cross bridge. (b) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes shape to pull actin. (c) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head. The cross bridge detaches. (d) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin cocks into its high energy conformation. 75. Refer the following figure and answer the question. Fusion of which of the following marked bones (1- 6) are responsible for the formation of coxal bones?

76.

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 5, 6 (c) 1, 2, 5 (d) 3, 5, 6 The given figure shows right pectoral girdle and upper arm. Few parts are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(a) Humerus: Longest bone of upper extremity and is characterized by presence of deltoid tuberosity for the attachment of muscles. (b) Radius: It is a smaller bone and formed by sesamoid bone. (c) Ulna: The bone extending from the elbow to the wrist on the side opposite to the thumb in humans. (d) Femur: Longest and largest bone of body.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS

Which of the following options shows the correct labelling of marked parts? 1

(a)

Clavicle

Scapula

Hu merus

Radiu s

(b)

Scapu la

Clav icle

Radiu s

Humeru s

(c )

Sacru m

Scapula

Uln a

Tib ia

(d)

Rad iu s

Clav icle

Scapula

Humeru s

77. The given figure shows the diagrammatic cross sectional view of a muscle with their parts marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which part is held together by a common collagenous connective tissue layer?

4 1 2 3

78.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 The given figure shows the structure of pectoral girdle and upper arm. Identify the structure marked as "X" and its feature.

79. Which of the following represents the correct order of vertebral regions from superior to inferior? I. Sacrum II. Thoracic III. Cervical IV. Lumbar V. Coccyx (a) I – II – III – IV – V (b) II – IV – I – III – V (c) IV – I – II – V – I (d) III – II – IV – I – V 80. What is the correct order that a motor nerve impulse travels when triggering a muscle contraction? (a) Motor nerve®synaptic cleft®sarcolemma® sarcoplasmic reticulum®troponin. (b) Motor nerve®synaptic cleft®sarcolemma®troponin ®sarcoplasmic reticulum. (c) Motor nerve®sarcoplasmic reticulum®synaptic cleft®sarcolemma®troponin. (d) Motor nerve®sar colemma®sarcoplasmic reticulum® synaptic cleft®troponin. 81. There are three blanks in the following statement. Mark the correct option having suitable words for filling the blanks. The thin filaments of myofibril contain ....... ‘A’......actin and two filaments of ....... ‘B’......protein along with ....... ‘C’......protein for masking binding site for myosin. ‘A’ (a) 1F

‘B’ troponin

‘C’ tropomyosin

(b) 1F

tropomyosin

troponin

tropomyosin

(d) 2F tropomyosin troponin 82. In which option the number of bones of two corresponding parts are not the same? (a) Thigh and upper arm (b) Sole and palm (c) Ankle and wrist (d) Leg and arm 83. The intercalated discs of________ muscle________. (a) smooth; provide strong mechanical adhesion and rapid electrical communication

EBD_7209

Biology

176

Locomotion and Movement

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(b) skeletal; are the basis for all voluntary muscle action (c) skeletal; make possible both fast twitches and slow twitches (d) cardiac; provide strong mechanical adhesion and rapid electrical communication Convexity of one bone articulate with concavity of other bone in (a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint (c) gliding joint (d) ball and socket joint All or None law is associated with (a) skeletal muscle fibre (b) neuron (c) cardiac muscle fibres (d) all of the above Long uninucleate muscles are found in (a) diaphragm (b) alimentary canal (c) tongue (d) eye Which of the following is not exclusively supplied with involuntary muscles? (a) Muscles of iris (b) Muscles of the ducts of gland (c) Muscles of urethra (d) Muscular coats of blood vessel Muscles of alimentary canal are mainly (a) striated and myogenic (b) striated and neurogenic (c) unstriated and neurogenic (d) unstriated and myogenic Muscle A and muscle B are of the same size, but muscle A is capable of much finer control than muscle B. Which one of the following is likely to be true for muscle A? (a) It contains fewer motor units than muscle B. (b) It has larger sarcomeres than muscle B. (c) It is controlled by more neurons than muscle B. (d) It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle B. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement? (a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals (b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals (c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to (a) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band. (b) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band. (c) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band.

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(d) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band. Eye-lid muscles have (a) thick fibres with abundant mitochondria. (b) thick fibres without myoglobin. (c) thin fibres with myoglobin. (d) thin fibres with lesser mitochondria. Which of the following structures is correctly organized from large to small? (a) Muscle, Muscle cell, Myofibril, Sarcomeres, Filaments. (b) Muscle, Muscle fibres, Sarcomeres, Filaments, Myofibrils. (c) Muscle, Sarcolemma, Myofibrils, Actin filaments, Myosin filaments. (d) Muscle cells, Myofibrils, Filaments, Sarcoplasm. Muscle contraction is triggered (a) when high levels of oxygen and sugar are released by the sarcolemma. (b) when a surplus of ATP is released by a nerve motor unit. (c) by release of a neurotransmitter at a synapse that directly causes actin and myosin to slide. (d) by the nerve releasing a neurotransmitter, which triggers a flow of calcium that attaches to actin filaments and exposes the myosin binding sites. The joint between _____(i)____ and _____(ii)_____ forms ball and socket joint. (a) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Ulna (b) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Scapula (c) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Radius (d) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Scapula Given below are some events which occur during muscle contraction. i. ATP is hydrolyzed. ii. Myosin heads bind to actin. iii. Hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers increases. iv. Calcium concentration in the sarcomere increase. v. I bands shorten and H zones disappear. Select the correct events which occur during muscle contraction. (a) i only (b) ii, iii & iv only (c) i, ii, iv & v only (d) All of these. The striations that give skeletal muscle its characteristic striped appearance are produced by (a) the T tubules. (b) sarcoplasmic reticulum. (c) arrangements of myofilaments. (d) a difference in the thickness of sarcolemma.

98.

What will happen if the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres is damaged? (a) Binding of ATP to actin will be affected. (b) Release of inhibition on Z discs will stop. (c) Exposure of myosin binding sites on the actin will be affected. (d) Transmission of action potential along the sarcolemma will increase. 99. Lubrication occurs at hinge joints which need to be able to move without friction. Which one of the following substances aids lubrication? (a) Cartilage (b) Ligament (c) Synovial fluid (d) Connective tissue 100. Which of the following is not the function of skeleton? (a) It allows movement. (b) It supports the body. (c) It connects muscle to joints. (d) It protects the internal part of the body. 101. "X" is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the "Y" and the seventh ribs. Identify "X" and "Y". (a) X - Patella ; Y - Third (b) X - Clavicle ; Y -Eight (c) X - Scapula ; Y - Sixth (d) X - Scapula ; Y - Second

Biology 102. A person is suffering from an age related disorder "X". X is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures. Identify X and its common cause. (a) Tetany, Increased levels of estrogen (b) Osteoporosis, Decreased levels of estrogen (c) Myasthenia gravis, Decreased levels of estrogen (d) Muscular dystrophy, Increased levels of estrogen 103. A student was given sample of two muscles marked as 1 and 2. When he compared the muscles he found that muscle 1 contains large amount of myoglobin and utilize large amount of stored oxygen for ATP production whereas muscle 2 contains few myoglobin, mitochondria and high sarcoplasmic reticulum. Identify the correct conclusion regarding the muscle 1 and 2 from the option given below. (a) Both the muscles are called aerobic muscles. (b) Both the muscles are called red fibers and depend on aerobic process for energy. (c) Muscle 1 is called white fibers and whereas muscle 2 depends on aerobic process for energy. (d) Muscle 1 is called red fibers and aerobic muscles whereas muscle 2 is called white fibers and depend on anaerobic process for energy.

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The nerves carrying impulses to CNS are known as (a) motor (b) efferent (c) afferent (d) mixed The controlling centre of autonomic nervous system is (a) hypothalamus (b) spinal cord (c) cerebellum (d) pons A bipolar neuron has (a) 2 dendrites and 1 axon (b) 2 axons and 1 dendrite (c) 1 dendrite and 1 axon (d) 2 axons and 2 dendrites Sodium – Postassium pump across membrane, actively transports (a) 2 Na ions outwards and 3 K ions into the cell. (b) 3 Na ions outwards and 2 K ions into the cell. (c) 2 K ions outwards and 3 Na ions into the cell. (d) 3 K ions outwards and 2 Na ions into the cell. During conduction of nerve impulse (a) Na+ moves into axoplasm (b) Na+ moves out of axoplasm (c) K+ moves into axoplasm (d) Ca++ moves into axoplasm In the axons, the nerve impulse travels. (a) towards the cell body. (b) away from the cell body. (c) away from synapse. (d) in both direction. Action potential of nerve cell is (a) – 60 mV (b) –80 mV (c) +20 mV (d) +30 mV During recovery, a nerve fibre becomes (a) positively charged outside and negatively charged inside. (b) positively charged on both-outside and inside. (c) negatively charged outside and positively charged inside. (d) negatively charged on both-outside and inside.

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Neural Control and Coordination

Which of the following ions are required for nerve conduction ? (a) Ca++, Na+ and K+ (b) Ca++ and Mg++ (c) Mg++ and K+ (d) Na+ and K+ During rest, sodium pump of a nerve results in (a) more Na+ pumped out than K+ ions taken in. (b) Na+ pumped in without exchange with any other ion. (c) exchanging equal amounts of Na+ and K+. (d) more Na+ being pumped in than K+ ions pumped out. A typical value of resting membrane potential is (a) – 40m V (b) – 60m V (c) – 70m V (d) – 80m V The transmission of impulse through neurons is a (a) physical phenomenon (b) chemical phenomenon (c) electro-chemical phenomenon (d) gravitational phenomenon The resting potential occurs because (a) of reduced energy production by mitochondria. (b) the action potential depletes transmitter substance. (c) of the different concentrations of ions across the cell. (d) the action potential causes axoplasmic transport back towards the cell body. The cerebral cortex is (a) the outer layer of cerebrum, called white matter. (b) inner layer of cerebrum, called white matter. (c) the outer layer of cerebrum, called grey matter. (d) inner layer of cerebrum, called grey matter. The secretion of gastric juice is controlled by (a) cerebellum (b) ANS (c) cerebrum (d) medulla Centre for sense of smell is (a) cerebellum (b) olfactory lobes (c) pons (d) midbrain Purkinje cells are found in (a) cerebellar cortex (b) mammalian heart (c) voluntary cells (d) semicircular canal Clusters of neuron cell bodies embedded in the white matter of the brain are referred to as (a) nuclei (b) gyri (c) sulci (d) ganglia

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Part of mammalian brain controlling muscular coordination is (a) cerebrum (b) corpus callosum (c) medulla oblongata (d) cerebellum Pons connects (a) brain with spinal cord (b) cerebrum with cerebellum (c) two-lobes of cerebellum (d) two cerebral hemispheres Part of brain responsible for hearing is (a) cerebellum (b) cerebrum (c) medulla (d) hypothalamus Corpus callosum connects (a) two cerebral hemispheres (b) two ventricles of brain (c) two cerebellar hemispheres (d) two optic thalamus Which of the following cell in the central nervous system functionally equivalent to a Schwann cell? (a) astrocyte (b) neuron (c) oligodendrocyte (d) microglial cell Pons varolii in human brain lies (a) anterior to optic chiasma (b) posterior to medulla oblongata (c) ventral to cerebellum (d) dorsal to diencephalon Which of the following is a thin middle layer of cranial meninges? (a) Duramater (b) Arachnoid (c) Piamater (d) Optic nerve Which of the following group of functions was regulated by part of hindbrain? (a) Sexual behaviour, body temperature, drinking. (b) Gastric secretion, cardiovascular reflexes, respiration. (c) Memory and communication, cardiovascular reflexes, respiration. (d) Gastric secretion, body temperature, Memory and communication. Which is not a reflex action? (a) Swallowing of food (b) Shivering in cold (c) Salivation at choicest food (d) Closure of eyelid by flashing light Twilight vision is also called (a) scotopic vision and is the function of rods. (b) scotopic vision and is the function of cones. (c) photopic vision and is the function of rods. (d) photopic vision and is the function of cones. The thinned-out portion of retina where only cones are densely packed is called (a) blind spot (b) corpus luteum (c) macula lutea (d) fovea

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The region of vertebrate’s eye where the optic nerve passes out of the retina is called (a) yellow spot (b) optic chiasma (c) fovea (d) blind spot The amount of light that falls on retina is regulated by (a) lens (b) cornea (c) iris (d) ciliary muscles For seeing the nearby objects, the lens becomes more convex by (a) relaxation of iris muscles. (b) contraction of iris muscles. (c) contraction of ciliary muscles. (d) relaxation of ciliary muscles. Space between cornea and lens is called (a) aqueous chamber (b) vitreous chamber (c) canal of schlemm (d) fovea centralis In human eye, the blind spot contains (a) rods (b) cones (c) both rods and cones (d) neither rods nor cones Which of the following is devoid of blood supply? (a) Retina (b) Choroid (c) Cornea (d) Scleroid Eye ball is moved in the orbit by (a) four rectus and two oblique muscles (b) ciliary muscles (c) suspensory ligaments (d) two rectus and four oblique muscles The blind spot is the region where (a) image is formed. (b) cones are numerous. (c) the optic nerve leaves out. (d) image is formed during the dark. Which part of the human eye adjust the focal length of lens ? (a) Aqueous humour (b) Ciliary body (c) Conjunctiva (d) Cornea Colour perception in man is due to the presence of (a) rhodopsin pigment in rod cells. (b) iodopsin pigment in cone cells. (c) iodopsin pigment in rod cells. (d) rhodopsin pigment in cone cells. The cochlea of ear contains (a) perilymph (b) aqueous humour (c) perilymph and endolymph (d) only endolymph At the base of cochlea, the canal that ends at the oval window is (a) scala tympani (b) scala media (c) scala vestibuli (d) auditory

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Neural Control and Coordination 42.

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The stereocilia of hair cells of organ of Corti are covered with a thick elastic membrane called (a) Reissner’s membrane (b) basilar membrane (c) tympanic membrane (d) tectorial membrane Macula of labyrinth is bathed in (a) aqueous humour (b) vitreous humour (c) perilymph (d) endolymph Bony labyrinth of ear contains a fluid known as (a) endolymph (b) perilymph (c) aqueous humour (d) synovial fluid The sense of equilibrium is determined by (a) basilar membrane of cochlea. (b) tectorial membrane of cochlea. (c) sensory crista of ampulla. (d) sensory cells of organ of corti. Receptor cells for balance in human ear are located in (a) utricle, saccule and semicircular canal (b) malleus, incus and stapes (c) organ of corti (d) Eustachian tube In mammals, the organs of Corti is found in (a) scala vestibule (b) scala tympani (c) scala media (d) middle ear In which part of the mammalian ear, the nerve impulse for hearing starts? (a) Eardrum (b) Ear ossicles (c) Cochlea (d) Auditory nerve Anvil-shaped bone is (a) malleus (b) incus (c) stapes (d) columella auris In mammalian cochlea, the thin-walled sloping roof of the scala media is referred to as (a) organ of Corti (b) scala tympani (c) basilar membrane (d) reissner’s membrance In static condition, the body balance is sensed by (a) crista (b) macula (c) both (a) and (b) (d) cochlear canal

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 52.

53.

Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Electrical synapses are more common in our neural system than chemical synapses. (b) The new potential in post-synaptic neuron may be either excitatory or inhibitory. (c) Hypothalamus is the major coordination centre for sensory and motor signaling. (d) The tracts of nerve fibres that connect two cerebral hemispheres are called corpora bigemina. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the organ of sight-eye?

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(a) The space between cornea and lens is filled with transparent gel. (b) When all cones are stimulated equally, a sensation of no light (dark) is produced. (c) Rhodopsin is purplish red protein, hence called visual purple. (d) The anterior transparent portion of choroid is called cornea. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) The ear ossicle attached to tympanic membrane is malleus. (b) Opsin (of rhodopsin) develops from vitamin A. (c) The pressure on ear drum is equalized by Eustachian tube. (d) Otolith organ consists of saccule and utricle. Which of the following statement is correct regarding cerebellum of brain? (a) It is concerned with the maintenance of posture/ equilibrium. (b) It is responsible for olfactory functions. (c) It controls optic functions. (d) both (a) and (c) Which of the following statement is an example of conditioned reflex? (a) Hand took up when piercing with a needle. (b) Driving a vehicle. (c) Eyes closed when any thing enter into it. (d) In digestion food goes forward in alimentary canal. Identify the main functions of the cerebrum of human brain from the given statement. (i) Control the contraction of voluntary muscles through the frontal lobe. (ii) Control the sensitivity, movement, memory, vocabulary etc. through the frontal lobe. (iii) Control the temperature, taste, touch, pain etc. through the parietal lobe. (iv) Control the hearing and sense of smell through the occipital and frontal lobes. (a) (i), (ii), (iv) (b) (i) (iii), (iv) (c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv) During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of (a) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid. (b) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid. (c) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid. (d) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid. All are None law (principle) states that (a) all stimuli produce action potentials. (b) any cell membrane can generate and propagate an action potential if stimulated to threshold value. (c) potential difference can either be 0 or 100. (d) the property of action potential is independent of the strength of depolarizing stimulus.

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Which statement regarding ‘stapes’ is correct? (a) It lies in the auditory meatus. (b) It fits onto the oval window. (c) It conducts sound vibrations to fenestra rotundus. (d) It is analogus to columella auris. Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles. (ii) Autonomic nervous system- Conduct impulses from CNS to internal organ muscles. (iii) Central nervous system- Consists of brain and spinal cord (iv) Peripheral nervous system- Consists of nerves carrying impulses to brain and spinal cord only (a) Only (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statements is correct regarding a myelinated nerve fibre? (i) It is always associated with an axon. (ii) It allows rapid conduction of nerve impulses. (iii) It allows slow conduction of nerve impulses. (iv) It has nodes of Ranvier. (a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i), (ii), and (iii) (c) Only (i), (ii), and (iv) (d) Only (i), (iii), and (iv) Which of the following events is involved in the transfer of information across a chemical synapse? (i) Neurotransmitters bind to the postsynaptic receptors. (ii) Calcium channels open in the presynaptic region. (iii) Ion channels open in the postsynaptic membrane. (iv) Direct flow of ions from one neuron to the next. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is correct about rods compared to cones? (i) Rods are most numerous in the fovea. (ii) Rods contain rhodopsin. (iii) Rods produce general outlines of objects rather than sharp images. (iv) Rods produce black and white but not colour images. (a) (i), and (ii) only (b) (ii), and (iiii) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only Which of the following statements is correct? (a) The internal ear receives sound waves and directs them to the ear drum. (b) The membranous canals are suspended in the endolymph of the bony canals. (c) The ear ossicles increase the efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. (d) The malleus is attached to the oval window and the stapes is attached to the temporal membrane of the cochlea.

66.

Which of the following statement is correct? (a) The space within cochlea called scala media is filled with endolymph. (b) The vestibular apparatus is composed of two semicircular canals and the otolith organ consisting of the saccule and utricle. (c) The external auditory meatus helps in equalizing the pressures on either sides of the ear drum. (d) The membranes constituting cochlea, the reissner's and basilar, divide the surrounding perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an upper scala tympani and a lower scala vestibuli.

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 67. Assertion : The axonal membrane of the neuron is more permeable to sodium ions (Na+) and nearly impermeable to potassium ions (K+). Reason : In a resting state neuron does not conduct any impulse. 68. Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitter. Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in synaptic cleft. 69. Assertion : The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential. Reason : To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy. 70. Assertion : Astigmatism is due to uneven curvature of lens. Reason : It is treated with cylindrical lenses. 71. Assertion : A cerebellum is related with skillful voluntary movement and involuntary activity like body balance, equilibrium etc. Reason : It is part of hind brain and it is situated behind the pons. 72. Assertion : The brain stem contains centres for controlling activities. Reason : Brain stem is very sensitive. 73. Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters. Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in the synaptic cleft.

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Neural Control and Coordination

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 74.

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Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function. Structure Location Function (a) Eustachian Anterior Equalizes air pressure tube part of on either sides of internal ear tympanic membrane (b) Cerebellum Mid brain Controls respiration and gastric secretions (c) Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking (d) Blind spot Near the Rods and cones are place where present but inactive optic nerve here leaves the eye Which one of the following is mismatched ? (a) Cerebrum - Memory (b) Medulla oblongata - Temperature regulation (c) Cerebellum - Equilibrium (d) Olfactory lobes - Smell Column I lists the parts of the human brain and column II lists the functions. Match the two columns and identify the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Cerebrum I. Controls the pituitary B. Cerebellum II. Controls vision and hearing C. Hypothalamus III. Controls the rate of heart beat D. Medulla oblongata IV. Maintains body posture (a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (b) A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I (c) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II (d) A – V, B – V, C – I, D – II Find out the right matching from the following pairs. (a) Accommodation .................. Pupil (b) Colour perception .................. Cones (c) Night blindness .................. Rods (d) Binocular vision .................. Iris Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of retina. Rod Cells Cone Cells (a) Distribution More Evenly distributed concentrated all over retina in centre of retina (b) Visual acuity High Low (c) Visual pigment Iodopsin Rhodopsin contained (d) Over all Vision in Colour vision and function poor light detailed vision in bright light

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Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Resting stage of I. Opening and then a neuron closing of the sodium channels B. Depolarization phase II. All voltage gated sodium in the generation of and potassium channels an action potential. are closed. C. Repolarization phase III. The sodium channels in the generation of remain opened. action potential D. Absolute refractory IV. Opening of potassium phase. gates and the rushing of potassium (a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I Match the given terms in column I with its definition given in column II and choose the correct options. Column I Column II (Terms) (Definition) A. Semi-circular canal I. Spiral organ of Corti B. Vestibule II. Fluid found in the scala vestibule and scala tympani C. Cochlea III. Evaluates rotational motion D. Perilymph IV. Fluid found within the organ of Corti E. Endolymph V. Responds to gravity and movements of the head (a) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V (c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I (d) A – IV, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – III Which of the following pair is not correctly matched? (a) Rods - Twilight vision (b) Ciliary body - Iris (c) Retina - Optic chiasma (d) Vitreous humour - Posterior compartment Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in column I with its location given in column II. Column I Column II A. Sclera I. The visible coloured portion of the eye. B. Choroid II. Its diameter is regulated by the muscle fibres of iris. C. Pupil III. Composed of a dense connective tissue D. Fovea IV. Portion of the retina where only the cones are densely packed E. Iris V. Contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in colour

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(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I (c) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II Which of the following terms is not correctly matched with its feature? (a) Efferent neurons - Carries signals from CNS to the effector. (b) Axon terminal - Possess neurotransmitter containing vesicle. (c) Limbic system - Along with the hypothalamus, it is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions and motivation. (d) Association areas - Present in cerebellum and responsible for functions like in tersen sory associations, memory and communication. Identify the correct match of types of neurons with its location. (i) Unipolar neuron - Embryonic stage (ii) Bipolar neuron - Cornea of eyes (iii) Multipolar neuron - Cerebral cortex (a) (i) & (ii) only (b) (ii) & (iii) only (c) (i) & (iii) only (d) All the three.

Salivary glands (b) Pupil of eye

Sympathetic Parasympathetic nervous system nervous system Stimulates Inhibits secretion secretion Dilates Constricts

Decreases Stimulates secretion

Feature (a)

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Increases Inhibits secretion

In the given diagram which stage of conduction of nerve impulse through nerve fibre is observed?

(a) Polarization

(b) Resting potential

(d) Depolarization

Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea with few part labelled as A, B, C & D.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 85.

The following diagram represent the reflex arc. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F and G and choose the correct option

C D

A B

Which one of the following options correctly represents the name of three different parts? (a) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane C: Endolymph (b) B: Tectorial membrane, C:Perilymph, D: Secretory cells

F G

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(d) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph B: Tectorial membrane The given diagram chows the axon terminal and synapse with few part labelled as A, B, C & D. Choose the correct combination of labelling from the given options. Ca2+

ion po l tia ten

(a) A - sense organ; B - sensory nerve; C - dorsal horn; D - interneuron; E - ventral horn; F - motor nerve ; G - effector (b) A - sense organ; B - sensory nerve; C - ventral horn; D - interneuron; E - dorsal horn; F - motor nerve; G - effector (c) A - effector; B - motor nerve; C - dorsal horn; D - interneuron; E - ventral horn; F - sensory nerve; G - effector (d) A - effector; B - motor nerve; C - ventral horn; D - interneuron; E - dorsal horn; F - sensory nerve; G - sense organ. Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (a – d). Which of the following feature is correctly described?

t Ac

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B Mitochondrion

Axon of presynaptic neuron A

ion channel (closed)

ion channel (open)

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Neural Control and Coordination

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(a) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Axon terminal, C- Synaptic cleft, D- Postsynaptic membrane (b) A- Axon terminal, B- Synaptic vesicle, CPostsynaptic membrane, D- Synaptic cleft. (c) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Synaptic cleft, C- Axon terminal, D- Post synaptic membrane (d) A- Post synaptic membrane, B- Axon terminal, C- Synaptic vesicle, D- Synaptic cleft The given diagram shows different parts of a human eye with one part labeled as X.

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What is the function of label X in the given diagram?

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(a) It speeds up the impulse transmission. (b) It provides electrical insulation. (c) It conducts impulse towards the nerve cell body. (d) It is the functional unit of nerve. Refer the given figure of ear with few structure marked as I, II, III & IV. Which labelled structure converts sound waves into mechanical vibrations?

III

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Which of the following statement is correct regarding label X? (a) It is the opening in lens that permits light into the inner chambers of the eye. (b) It is the coloured portion of vascular tunic. (c) It is a biconcave structure that changes shape to bring objects into focus. (d) It is thick, jelly-like substance in the posterior compartment of the eye. Which of the following options correctly represents the name of 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the given diagram of neuron?

II IV

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(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV Identify the correct options for the given blanks. Part of the ear Functions _____A_____ Contains receptors for balance _____B_____ Increases the magnitude of vibrations _____C_____ Collects sound waves (a) A- Semi-circular canals, B- Ear ossicles, C- Pinna (b) A- Cochlea, B- Semi-circular canals, C- Tympanum (c) A- Semi-circular canals, B- Cochlea, C- Tympanum (d) A- Cochlea, B- Pinna, C- Ear ossicles Which of the following statements is/are functions of structure labelled as ‘X’ in the given diagram of eye?

(a) 1- Axon, 2- Dendrites, 3- Node of Ranvier, 4- Myelin sheath (b) 1- Dendrites, 2- Axon, 3- Node of Ranvier, 4- Myelin sheath (c) 1- Dendrites, 2- Cell body, 3- Myelin sheath, 4- Node of Ranvier (d) 1- Axon, 2- Cell body, 3- Dendrites, 4- Node of Ranvier X

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It provides attachment points for muscles that move the eye. II. It maintains the shape of the eye ball. III. It helps during accomodation. IV. It is responsible for eye colour. (a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) All of these The given diagram represents the sectional view of cochlea with few part labelled as I, II, III & IV. III

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Identify the name and the labelled part which is a naked portion of myelinated axon and facilitate the rapid conduction of nerve impulses. (a) Dendrites, 1 (b) Schwan cell, 2 (c) Synaptic knob, 3 (d) Nodes of Ranvier, 4 99. Identify the part along which the sequence of impulse generation is repeated. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 100. Refer the given figure which shows the axon terminal and synapse with their parts marked as 1 to 7. Identify the correct parts whose constitution forms the structure of synapse.

II IV

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The movement of which marked label causes hair cell microvilli to bend back and forth. (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV The primary function of the structure labelled as X in the given figure is X

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 5 (c) 4, 5, 6 (d) 5, 6, 7 101. Refer the given figure of eye in which few parts are labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Select the option which shows the correct identification of the part with its characteristics.

(a) movement of head (b) position of head (c) hearing (d) vision Direction (Qs. 98 and 99): Refer the given figure of neuron structure with few parts labelled as 1, 2, 3, and 4 and answer the questions. (a) 1 : Choroid, it contains ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells. (b) 2 : Iris, it is responsible for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina. (c) 3 : Blind spot, it is a yellowish pigmented spot called macula lutea with a central pit called the fovea. (d) 4 : Cornea, it is a transparent front part of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. 102. "X" is spiral shaped structure consisting of hair cells that serve as receptors for auditory stimuli. Identify "X" and its label & location (marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4) from the given diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea.

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Neural Control and Coordination

187

111. Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is (a) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamater (b) Duramater – Piamater – Arachnoid (c) Arachnoid – Duramater - Piamater (d) Piamater- Arachnoid - Duramater 112. Which of these is an example of conditioned reflex? (a) (b) (c) (d)

X- Organ of corti, 2, 3. X- Eustachian tube, 1, 2. X- Semicircular canal, 3, 4. X- Crista ampullaris, 1, 4.

113.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 103. For sound (good) reflex actions we require intact (a) spinal cord (b) cerebellum (c) hypothalamus (d) medulla oblongata 104. In which animal nerve cell is present but brain is absent? (a) Sponge (b) Earthworm (c) Cockroach (d) Hydra 105. Which one of the following is an example of a simple reflex ? (a) Closing of eyes if an object suddenly approaches them. (b) Climbing stairs in dark. (c) Watering of mouth at the sight of delicious food. (d) Tying laces while talking to and looking at another person. 106. The main cause of paralysis is (a) some defect in muscles (b) complete destruction of motor nerves (c) complete destruction of sensory nerves (d) none of the above 107. An example of autonomous nervous system is (a) swallowing food (b) pupillary reflex (c) peristalsis of intestine (d) knee-jerk response 108. In a nerve if sodium pump is blocked, which of the following is most likely to happen ? (a) Na+ and K+ will increases outside the cell. (b) Na+ outside the nerve will increase. (c) Na+ inside the nerve will increase. (d) K+ inside the nerve will increase. 109. A person feels no sensation when he puts his hand over flame. The part of the brain which has damaged is (a) cerebellum (b) medulla oblongata (c) diencephalon (d) hypothalamus 110. An axon has four terminal ends connected with dendrites of four different neurons. Its nerve impulse will. (a) become weak due to distribution into four. (b) travel in all the four neurons with equal strength. (c) pass on to one neuron only. (d) travel to none because the movement of impulse is from dendrite to axon.

114.

115.

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117.

(a) Watering of mouth at the taste of food. (b) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot plate. (c) Cycling. (d) Flowing of tears while peeling and cutting onions. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and mouth is dry. It is because of (a) fight and flight response (b) sympathetic nervous system (c) parasympathetic nervous system (d) both (a) and (b) During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre , the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge? (a) First positive, then negative and again back to positive. (b) First negative, then positive and again back to negative. (c) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative. (d) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system? (a) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain. (b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal cortex. (c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla. (d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse. Identify the correct order in which vibrations travel through the auditory ossicles? (a) Stapes-Malleus-Incus (b) Malleus-Incus-Stapes (c) Stapes-Incus-Malleus (d) Incus-Stapes-Malleus The part of an eye which acts like diaphragm of a photographic camera, is (a) pupil (b) iris (c) lens (d) cornea

118. Cornea transplantation is successful as cornea is (a) easily available (b) without blood supply (c) easily preserved (d) easily stitched 119. A person is wearing spectacles with concave lenses for correcting vision. While not using the glasses, the image of a distant object in his case will be formed (a) on the blind spot. (b) behind the retina. (c) on the yellow spot.(d) in front of the retina. 120. In a similarity with photographic camera the retina acts as (a) shutter (b) lens (c) diaphragm (d) film 121. When we move from light to dark, we fail to see for some time but soon the visibility becomes normal. It is called

122.

123.

124.

125.

(a) accomodation (b) adaptation (c) photoperiodism (d) mutation Layers in wall of eye balls from inside outwards are (a) retina, choroid, sclerotic (b) sclerotic, choroid, retina (c) choroid, retina, sclerotic (d) choroid, sclerotic, retina Arrange the cardiac muscle fibres, skeletal muscle fibres and the nerve fibres on the basis of velocity of impulse conduction in descending order, i.e. from maximum to the minimum. (a) Nerve fibres - cardiac muscle fibres - skeletal muscle fibres (b) Nerve fibres- skeletal muscle fibres - cardiac muscle fibres (c) Skeletal muscle fibres- cardiac muscle fibres - nerve fibres (d) Cardiac muscle fibres- skeletal muscle fibres - nerve fibres Which part of internal ear recognizes the different frequencies of sound ? (a) Tectorial membrane (b) Basilar membrane (c) Tympanic membrane (d) Reissner’s membrane The correct logical sequence regarding flow of sound in human ear is (a) Ear ossicles- Oval window - Tympanum - Auditory canal - Cochlea (b) Auditory canal - Tympanum- Ear ossicles - Oval window - Cochlea (c) Cochlea- Tympanum- Ear ossicles - Oval window Auditory canal (d) Tympanum - Cochlea - Oval window - Ear ossicles Auditory canal

126. Trace the correct sequence for pathway of light through the eye to the retina? (a) Conjunctiva - Cornea - Aqueous humour - Pupil Lens - Vitreous humour - Yellow spot. (b) Cornea- Conjunctiva- Vitreous humour- Lens- Pupil - Aqueous humour - Yellow spot (c) Conjunctiva- Cornea - Vitreous humour - Lens - Pupil - Aqueous humour - Yellow spot (d) Cornea - Conjunctiva - Aqueous humour - Pupil- Lens - Vitreous humour - Yellow spot 127. Refer the following features and identify the correct part of the ear to which these are associated. i. It is also called auditory tube. ii. It connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx. iii. It helps in equalizing the pressures on either sides of the ear drum. (a) Ear ossicles (b) Eustachian tube (c) Semicircular canal (d) Vestibular apparatus 128. ‘X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the base of the structure which is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling. It contains a number of centre which control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking. Identify X and Y from the options given below (a) X -Cerebellum ; Y - Hindbrain (b) X -Hypothalamus ; Y - Forebrain (c) X -Corpora quadrigemina ; Y - Midbrain (d) X -Pituitary gland ; Y - Forebrain 129. Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always ________than that across a chemical synapse. (a) faster (b) slower (c) intermittent (d) continuous 130. Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by an ‘X’ that does not form a myelin sheath around the ‘Y’, and is commonly found in ‘Z’ and the somatic neural systems. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. X (a) Schwann cells

Y Axon

C Autonomous

(b) Nodes of Ranvier Cell body Synaptic knob (c) Synapse Dendrites Sympathetic (d) Meninges Nerve impulse Peripheral

131. The ____ neuron receives signal from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the _____. The ______ neuron then carries signals from CNS to the ________. (a) afferent, CNS, efferent, effector (b) efferent, PNS, afferent, effector (c) afferent, CNS, efferent, receptor (d) efferent, PNS, afferent, receptor

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

10.

Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes (a) ACTH, TSH and oxytocin (b) STH, GH and ADH (c) TSH, ADH and prolactin (d) FSH, GH and LH A gorilla like appearance with huge hands and legs is due to abnormal secretion of (a) FSH (b) LH (c) LTH (d) GH ACTH is secreted by (a) adrenal cortex (b) pituitary (c) adrenal medulla (d) thyroid Which of the following hormone is required for the maintenance of corpus luteum ? (a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen (c) FSH (d) LH Oxytocin hormone is produced by (a) pituitary (b) adrenals (c) hypothalamus (d) thyroid Ovulation in humans is controlled by (a) FSH and LTH (b) FSH and G.H (c) LTH and LH (d) FSH and LH Ovulation and formation of corpus luteum is controlled by (a) ICSH (b) FSH (c) thyroxine hormone (d) luteinizing hormone MSH is secreted by (a) pars intermedia (b) pars tuberalis (c) pars distalis (d) pars nervosa Secretion of estrogen is controlled by (a) hCG (b) FSH (c) progesterone (d) testosterone Deficiency of vasopressin primarily results in (a) increased volume of urine. (b) decreased volume of urine. (c) excessive secretion of urochrome. (d) change in pH from acidic to alkaline range.

11.

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17.

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21.

Chapter

Chemical Coordination and Integration

Anti-ageing hormone is (a) thyroxine (b) melatonin (c) estrogen (d) testosterone Sleep-wake cycle and menstrual cycle are maintained by (a) progesterone (b) melatonin (c) oxytocin (d) MSH When amount of ADH decreases in blood, micturition (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains unaffected (d) increases and then decreases Which hormone helps in reabsorption of water from kidney? (a) ADH (b) STH (c) ACTH (d) TTH Which of the following occurs due to ADH deficiency? (a) Increase urine output. (b) Increased water in urine. (c) Less urine. (d) No urination. Which of the following hormone acts upon the renal tubule and blood capillaries ? (a) Glucagon (b) Aldosterone (c) Vasopressin (d) Glucocorticoids Which endocrine gland stores its secretion in extracellular spaces before discharging it into blood? (a) Testis (b) Pancreas (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal Which of the following hormone opposes parathormone ? (a) ADH (b) STH (c) Thyroxine (d) Thyrocalcitonin Abnormal secretion of thyroxine produces (a) acromegaly (b) Addison’s disease (c) cretinism (d) goitre Thyroxine acts on every organ of the body, except (a) adult brain (b) testis (c) thyroid itself (d) bones Which of the following is (are) not influenced by parathyroid hormone ? (a) Kidney (b) Bone (c) Small intestine (d) None of the above

22.

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Which of the following gland is often referred in connection with AIDS? (a) Thymus (b) Thyroid (c) Adrenal (d) Pancreas Thymus in mammals is mainly concerned with (a) regulation of body growth. (b) secretion of thyrotropin. (c) regulation of body temperature. (d) immunological functions. Which one of the following disease is caused by the under secretion of cortisol hormone? (a) Anaemia (b) Addison’s disease (c) Hyperglycemia (d) Mental retardation Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect? (a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin (c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone Triple ‘F’ gland for flight, fright and fight is (a) thyroid (b) thymus (c) pituitary (d) adrenal Glycogenesis is the result of the hormone secreted from (a) alpha cells of pancreas. (b) beta cells of pancreas. (c) thyroid gland. (d) adrenal gland. Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of (a) insulin (b) vasopressin (c) oxytocin (d) thymosin Blood glucose level in man is regulated by (a) insulin only (b) adrenaline (c) glucagon and insulin (d) all of the above Source of somatostatin is the same as that of (a) insulin and glucagon (b) vasopressin and oxytocin (c) thyroxine and calcitonin (d) somatotropin and prolactin In human, testosterone is produced by (a) tunica albuginea (b) leydig cell (c) seminiferous tubule (d) sertoli cell The hormone that supports pregnancy and stimulates mammary glands for the formation of alveoli for storing milk, is secreted from (a) anterior Pituitary (b) posterior pituitary (c) graafian follicle (d) corpus luteum During pregnancy corpus luteum (a) degenerates. (b) changes to corpus albicans. (c) persists until parturition. (d) persists upto the middle of pregnancy.

34.

35.

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42.

Hormone which helps in implantation of embryo in uterus is (a) estrogen (b) oxytocin (c) relaxin (d) progesterone Secretion of which of the following structure is responsible in preparing the inner wall of uterus for implantation ? (a) Ovary (b) Pituitary gland (c) Corpus luteum (d) Ovarian follicle Which of the following is a gastro-intestinal hormone? (a) Cholinesterase (b) Enterokinase (c) Secretin (d) Interocrinin The hormone secretin is produced in (a) pancreas and influences conversion of glycogen into glucose. (b) small intestine and stimulates pancreas. (c) adrenal glands and accelerates heartbeat. (d) testes and produces male secondary sexual characters. Which hormone interacts with membrane bound receptor and does not normally enter the target cell? (a) FSH (b) Estrogen (c) Thyroxine (d) Cortisol Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ? (a) Calcium (b) Sodium (c) cAMP (d) cGMP Receptors for protein hormones are found (a) inside nucleus (b) inside cytoplasm (c) on surface of ER (d) on cell surface Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus) ? (a) Somatostatin, Oxytocin (b) Cortisol, Testosterone (c) Insulin, Glucagon (d) Thyroxine, Insulin Steroid hormones are produced only by the (a) adrenal medulla and pancreas. (b) thyroid gland and pancreas. (c) anterior and posterior pituitary. (d) sex organs and adrenal cortex.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 43.

44.

Mark the correct statement regarding somatostatin. (a) It is secreted from anterior pituitary. (b) It inhibits the release of growth hormone. (c) It is secreted from posterior pituitary. (d) It stimulates STH secretion. What of the following is correct about calcitonin ? (a) It contains iodine. (b) It is an amino acid. (c) It is released from parathyroid. (d) It is released from thyroid gland.

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Chemical Coordination and Integration 45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

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53.

Which statement regarding PTH is correct? (a) It is a peptide hormone. (b) It stimulates bone resorption. (c) It is hypercalcemic hormone. (d) All of the above. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system? (a) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones. (b) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones. (c) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland . (d) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus. Which of the following is correct for thyrocalcitonin ? (a) Produced by parathyroid and decreases Ca++ in ECF. (b) Produced by thyroid and decreases Ca++ in ECF. (c) Produced by parathyroid and increases Ca ++ in ECF. (d) Produced by thyroid and increases Ca++ in ECF. One similarity between enzymes and hormones is that (a) both are proteins. (b) both can be used again and again. (c) both are used in minute amount. (d) both act at a particular pH. Hormones of pituitary gland are (a) some steroids and some proteins (b) all proteins/peptides. (c) complex substances formed from proteins, steroids, carbohydrates. (d) all steroids. Norepinephrine (i) is released by sympathetic fibres. (ii) is released by parasympathetic fibres. (iii) increases the heart rate. (iv) decreases blood pressure. Which of the above said statements are correct? (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Choose the correct statement about ‘neurohypophysis’ ? (a) It stores and release hormones secreted by hypothalamus. (b) It secretes its own hormones. (c) It is poorly developed and functionless in humans. (d) It stores th e hormones produced by adenohypophysis. Which of the following statement is correct regarding glucagon hormone ? (a) It has opposite effect to that of insulin. (b) It converts glucose to glycogen. (c) It is given to diabetic patients. (d) It is formed by b-cells of pancreas. A woman may develop beard and moustaches due to (a) hypersecretion of adrenal cortex. (b) hypersecretion of thyroxine. (c) hyposecretion of adrenaline. (d) hyposecretion of thyroxine.

191

54.

55.

56.

Which one of the following statement is correct? (a) Endrocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands. (b) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity. (c) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa. (d) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa. Which of the following statement about the hormone action in humans is correct ? (a) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane. (b) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone. (c) Glucagon is secreted by b-cells of Islets of langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis. (d) Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with ageing. Which of the followings is the more scientific definition of hormone? (a) They are extracellular messengers. (b) They always act at distantly located target organ. (c) They are the products of well organized endocrine glands. (d) They are non-nutrient chemicals that act as intercellular messengers.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 62.

63.

64.

65.

Select the correct match of a hormone with its source and function. Hormone Source Function (a) Vasopressin Posterior Increases loss of pituitary water through urine. (b) Nor-epinephrine Adrenal Increases heart beat, medulla rate of respiration and alertness. (c) Glucagon Beta-cells Stimulates of Islets of glycogenolysis. langerhans (d) Prolactin Posterior Regulates growth of Pituitary mammary glands and milk formation in females. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description? (a) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism. (b) Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty. (c) Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood into bones during calcification. (d) Pancreas – Delta cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis in liver. Match the hormones given in column-I with the terms given in column-II Column -I Column-II A. ADH I. Pituitary B. ACTH II. Mineralocorticoid C. Aldosterone III. Diabetes mellitus D. Insulin IV. Diabetes insipidus E. Adrenaline V. Vasodilator (a) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III, E – V (b) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III, E – V (c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III, E – V (d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II, E – V Column-I lists the endocrine structure and column-II lists the corresponding hormones. Match the two columns and identify the correct option given below. Column-I A. Hypothalamus B. Anterior pituitary C. Testis D. Ovary

Column-II I. Relaxin II. Estrogen III. FSH and LH IV. Testosterone V. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

(a) A – V, B – III, C – IV, D – II (b) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – IV (c) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III (d) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II. Match the hormone given in column-I with their function in given in column-II. Column-I Column-II A. FSH I. Prepare endometrium for implantation B. LH II. Develops female secondary sexual characters C. Progesterone III. Contraction of uterine wall D. Estrogen IV. Development of corpus luteum V. Maturation of Graafian follicle (a) A – V, B – IV, C – I, D – II (b) A – IV, B – V, C – II, D – I (c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – V (d) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – IV Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (a) Insulin–Diabetes mellitus (disease) (b) Glucagon–Beta cells (source) (c) Somatostatin–Delta cells (source) (d) Corpus luteum–Relaxin (secretion) Match the endocrine gland as a source with its respective hormone as well as the function. Source gland Hormone Function (a) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level (b) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of uterine pituitary muscles during child birth (c) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates resorption pituitary of water in the distal tubules in the nephron (d) Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy Which of the following pair of hormone and their disorder is correctly matched ? (a) Parathormone – Cretinism (b) Thyroxine – Ricket (c) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus (d) Cortisol – Cushing’s disease Mark the hormone given in column I and the endocrine cells given in column II. Column-I Column-II A. a-cell I. Inhibin B. b-cell II. Glucagon C. Leydig cell III. Insulin D. Sertoli cells IV. Testosterone (a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (b) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I (c) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV (d) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

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Chemical Coordination and Integration 71.

193

Match the following hormones given in column I with their appropriate category of hormones given in column II. Column-I Column-II (Hormones) (Categories) A. FSH and LH I. Glucocorticoids B. Cortisol II. Mineralocorticoids C. Androgen III. Gonadotropins D. Aldosterone IV. Gonadocorticoids (a) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (d) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III

74.

Which of the following gland is correctly matched with their secretions? Hormones Their secretions A I Melatonin B II Thymosin C III Epinephrine D IV Aldosterone E V Testosterone (a) I, II and III only (b) I, IV and V only (c) II, IV, and V only (d) II, III and V only The hormone released by label "X" in the given figure helps to restore Y. Identify X and Y.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 72.

The given figure shows the hormonal control of female reproductive system in which few steps are marked as A, B, C and D. Identify the correct labelling.

X Y Too much calcium in the blood. Lowered levels of calcium in blood. Decreased level of blood sugar. Excessive loss of sodium in extracellular fluid. The label X represents ___i_____ and the hormone released by it is _____ii______. Identify (i) and (ii) X (a) (b) (c) (d)

75.

73.

(a) A- GnRH, B - TSH, C - LTH, D - Uterus (b) A - GnRH, B - FSH/LH, C - Estrogen or progesterone, D - urerus (c) A - GnRH, B - STH, C - LH, D - Uterus (d) A - GnRH, B - ACTH, C - LH, D - Uterus The given diagram represents the location of human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V.

I 76. II

X Thyroxine PTH Thymosin Adrenaline

(a) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Epinephrine (b) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Aldosterone (c) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Epinephrine (d) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Aldosterone Which of the following disease is caused due to over secretion of the structure marked as X?

III

X IV

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Gigantism Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus Grave's disease

77.

The Hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus into which of the following parts marked in I, II, III and IV. I

80.

Identify the hormone represented by lines 1 and 2? (a) 1- ACTH, 2- Aldosterone (b) 1- ACTH, 2- Adrenaline (c) 1- TSH, 2- Thyroxine (d) 1- TSH, 2- Aldosterone

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 81.

IV III 82.

78.

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV Which endocrine gland secretes the hormone that causes the abnormalities shown in the below picture?

83.

84.

85. (a) Hypothalamus (b) Pancreas (c) Adenohypophysis (d) Neurohypophysis Direction (For Qs. 79 and 80) : The endocrine glands A and B in the given figure represent ___ (i) ____ and ____ (ii) ____ respectively.

86.

87.

88.

79.

Identify (i) and (ii) (a) i- Pituitary gland , ii- Adrenal gland (b) i- Hypothalamus, ii- Pituitary gland (c) i- Hypothalamus, ii- Adrenal gland (d) i- Pituitary gland, ii- Hypothalamus

89.

In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will (a) continue to respond to hormone. (b) not respond to hormone. (c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration. (d) continue to respond but in the opposite way. The number of hormones secreted by anterior pituitary is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 Which hormone is related to mineral metabolism but is not a peptide / protein in nature ? (a) PTH (b) ANF (c) Aldosterone (d) All of the above Pancreatic duct of a healthy dog is blocked. Which of the following function of pancreas will not be affected ? (a) Maintenance of normal blood sugar level. (b) Carbohydrate digestion. (c) Protein digestion. (d) Neutralization of chyme. A decrease in the level of estrogen and progesterone causes (a) growth and dilation of myometrium. (b) growth of endometrium. (c) constriction of uterine blood vessels leading to sloughing of endometrium or uterine epithelium. (d) release of ovum from the ovary. Which of the following endocrine glands grows to the maximum size at puberty and then diminishes gradually? (a) Thymus (b) Pituitary (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal Which one is different from the category of other three? (a) Gastrin (b) Ptyalin (c) Secretin (d) Glucagon Which of the following disorders are caused by hypersecretion of their concerned hormones ? (a) gigantism and exophthalmic goitre (b) tetany and myxoedema (c) diabetes mellitus and goitre (d) rickets and diabetes insipidus Hormones produced by anterior lobe of pituitary (a) control calcium level in blood. (b) stimulate thyroid and other endocrine glands. (c) initiate alarm reaction. (d) regulate water balance in body.

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Chemical Coordination and Integration 90.

Growth hormone of pituitary is more effective in (a) presence of thyroxine. (b) absence of thyroxine. (c) absence of insulin. (d) presence of adrenaline. 91. Which of the following hormone helps a person who suffers from a marked fall in blood pressure ? (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (c) GH (d) Adrenaline 92. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are (a) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and calcitonin (b) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids (c) insulin, glucagon, cortisol and melatonin (d) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin 93. Which of the following hormones are identical? (a) ACTH and adrenaline (b) hCG and progesterone (c) Calcitonin and Oxytocin (d) Vasopressin and ADH. 94. A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more frequently as he has to eliminate from blood, the extra (a) salts (b) sugar (c) insulin (d) protein 95. Which hormone promotes cell division, protein synthesis and bone growth? (a) GH (b) ADH (c) ACTH (d) PTH 96. Injection of glucagon will (a) cause goitre (b) cause galactosemia (c) cause hypoglycemia (d) increase blood sugar level 97. A person who has protruding eyes, tachycardia and higher body temperature is suffering from (a) cretinism (b) hyperthyroidism (c) myxoedema (d) acromegaly 98. Point out the odd one: (a) Corticotropin (b) Vasopressin (c) Noradrenaline (d) Prolactin 99. When a boy goes through puberty, the steroid hormone testosterone puts hair on his chest by (a) interacting with DNA in the nuclei of cells. (b) causing cells to change shape. (c) altering the permeability of plasma membranes. (d) triggering nerve impulses in cells. 100. A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because (a) fats are catabolised to form glucose. (b) amino acids are catabolised in liver. (c) amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver. (d) glycogen from muscles are released in the blood stream.

195

101. Identify a hormone which is produced by the pituitary gland in both males and females but functional only in females. (a) Vasopressin (b) Relaxin (c) Prolactin (d) Somatotropic hormone 102. Low level of progesterone and estrogen in blood stimulate (a) FSH-RH production (b) LH production (c) GH production (d) All of the above 103. Some glands produce hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands. Which of the following hormones specifically acts to trigger secretion of hormones by another endocrine gland? (a) Thyroxine (b) Progesterone (c) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 104. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glucogenesis? (a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline (c) Glucagon (d) ACTH 105. In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level, which organs function respectively as modulator and effector? (a) Liver and islets of langerhans (b) Hypothalamus and liver (c) Hypothalamus and islets of langerhans (d) Islets of langerhans and hypothalamus 106. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water and reduction of urine secretion, is synthesized by (a) posterior pituitary gland (b) juxtaglomerular apparatus (c) hypothalamus (d) anterior pituitary gland 107. The hormones that initiate ejection of milk, stimulates milk production and growth of ovarian follicles, are respectively known as (a) PRL, OT and LH (b) OT, PRL and FSH (c) LH, PRL and FSH (d) PRH, OT and LH 108. Hypothyroidism in adults and hyperparathyroidism in children will respectively lead to (a) myxoedema and cretinism (b) Grave’s disease and Hashimoto’s disease (c) myxoedema and osteitis fibrosa cystica (d) Addison’a disease and cretinism 109. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action? (a) Gastrin (b) Thyroxine (c) Adrenaline (d) Glucagon 110. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly? (a) Thyroid (b) Parathyroid (c) Parotid (d) Pancreas

111. A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation/low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of (a) low secretion of growth hormone (b) cancer of the thyroid gland (c) over secretion of pars distalis (d) deficiency of iodine in diet 112. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterized by a low metabolicrate, increase in body weight and tendency to retain water in tissues is (a) cretinism (b) hypothyroidism (c) simple goitre (d) myxoedema 113. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was (a) high levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening. (b) high level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis. (c) high level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo. (d) high level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening. 114. STH or growth hormone (A) differs from insulin (B) in which of the following action ? (a) (A) causes glycogenesis but (B) causes glycolysis. (b) (A) causes lipolysis but (B) causes lipogenesis. (c) (A) is catabolic for protein but (B) is anabolic. (d) (A) causes glycogenolysis but (B) causes glycogenesis. 115. When the B.P. is high and over loading of heart is present then which hormone is released for compensating this mechanism ? (a) Aldosterone (b) A.D.H (c) Atri-natriuretic factor (d) Renin 116. The hormone ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide) (a) stimulates the secretion of ADH and aldosterone. (b) inhibits the secretion of aldosterone but stimulates ADH secretion. (c) stimulates the secretion of renin. (d) inhibits the secretion of ADH, aldosterone and renin. 117. Pick the odd one out from each given words and then matches it with correct options. I. Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary, Prostate II. Cretinism, Goitre, Myxodema, Scurvy III. Insulin, Blood sugar, Adrenaline, Thyroxine IV. Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone, Prolactin (a) I- Prostate, II - Scurvy, III - Blood sugar, IVTestosterone (b) I - Adrenal, II - Goitre, III - Insulin, IV - Prolactin

(c) I - Thyroid, II - Cretinism, III - Adrenaline, IV Estrogen (d) I - Pituitary, II - Myxodema, III - Thyroxine, IV - Progesterone 118. Tim once suffered a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting. The sting caused him to suffer a near-fatal drop in blood pressure called anaphylactic shock. Now he carries a kit containing a syringe of _____________, which he can inject to speed up his heart if he reacts to a bee sting. (a) insulin (b) melatonin (c) testosterone (d) epinephrine 119. Which of the following sets of vertebrate hormones are all produced in the anterior pituitary gland ? (a) Somatostatin, Vasopressin, Insulin (b) Prolactin, Growth hormone, Enkephalins (c) Oxytocin, Prolactin, Adrenocorticotropin (d) Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone 120. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C GLANDS A

SECRETION Oestrogen

Alpha cells of B Islets of Langerhans Anterior pituitary C

EFFECT ON BODY Maintenance of secondary sexual characters Raises blood sugar level Over secretion leads to gigantism

Options: A B C (a) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin (b) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone (c) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin (d) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin 121. Which of the following represent the correct options? Name of the gland Substance produced Function A Insulin C B Glucagon D (a) A - Alpha cells, B - Hyperglycemia, C - Beta cells, D - Hypoglycemia (b) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C - Hypoglycemia, D - Hyperglycemias (c) A - Alpha cells, B - Hypoglycemia , C - Beta cells, D - Hyperglycemia (d) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C - Hyperglycemia, D - Hypoglycemia

EBD_7209

Biology

196

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The period from birth to the natural death of an organism represents (a) gametophytic phase (b) sporophytic phase (c) life span (d) life cycle Which ot the following has the longest life span ? (a) Butterfly (b) Crocodile (c) Parrot (d) Tortoise In all the methods of asexual reproduction (a) offsprings produced are genetically identical to the parents. (b) offsprings produced are genetically different from the parents. (c) offsprings produced may or may not be identical to the parents. (d) None of the above A clone is a group of individuals obtained through (a) self-pollination

10.

11.

12.

(b) hybridization

(c) asexual reproduction (d) cross-pollination The term clone is used to describe such ___________and ________ similar individual. (a) chemically, genetically (b) physiologically, chemically (c) morphologically, genetically (d) morphologically, metabolically Asexual reproduction is common among (a) single celled organisms only. (b) plants only. (c) animals with simple organization. (d) single celled animals, plants and animals with simple organizations. In protists and monerans, asexual reproduction occurs by (a) budding (b) binary fission (c) conidia (d) multiple fission

13.

14.

15.

16.

Chapter

Reproduction in Organisms

In yeast cell division results in a small cell called (a) bud (b) clone (c) branch (d) offspring Fleshy buds produced in the axil of leaves, which grow to form new plants when shed and fall on ground are called (a) Bulbs (b) Bulbils (c) Tubers (d) Offset The term ‘Terror of Bengal’ is used for (a) Bengal tiger (b) water hyacinth (c) algal bloom (d) aquatic fauna In which of the following pairs the plants can be vegetative propagated by leaf buds? (a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe (b) Chrysanthemum and Agave (c) Agave and Kalanchoe (d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum In sexual reproduction, offsprings resemble the parents (a) structurally but not functionally. (b) functionally but not structurally. (c) both structurally and functionally. (d) neither structurally nor functionally. Oestrus cycle is seen in (a) cows and sheep (b) rats and deers (c) dogs and tiger (d) all of the above The end of vegetative phase in plants which marks the beginning of the reproductive phase can be easily seen in the higher plants when they come to (a) flower (b) fertilize (c) pollinate (d) None of the above Sexual reproduction can be grouped into _______ distinct states. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five In flowering plants both male and female gametes are non-motile. The method to bring them together for fertilization is (a) water (c) pollination

(b) air (d) apomixis

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

The terms homothallic and monoecious are used to denote (a) bisexual condition (b) unisexual condition (c) staminate flowers (d) pistillate flowers Syngamy means (a) fusion of similar spores. (b) fusion of gametes. (c) fusion of dissimilar spores. (d) fusion of cytoplasm. Development of an egg without fertilization is called (a) gametogenesis (b) metagenesis (c) oogenesis (d) parthenogenesis Which of the followings is a post-fertilization event in flowering plants ? (a) Transfer of pollen grains (b) Embryo development (c) Formation of flower (d) Formation of pollen grains Viviparity is found in (a) whale (b) lizards (c) frogs (d) birds

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 22. Which of the following statement about animal reproduction is incorrect ? (a) Species that reproduce sexually cannot reproduce asexually. (b) Viviparity, but not ovoviviparity, is common in mammals. (c) Male insects can remove spermatophores deposited in a female by other males. (d) Oogenesis and spermatogenesis both occur simultaneous in hermaphrodites. 23. Which of the following statements about animals that utilize external fertilization is incorrect ? (a) They are divided equally between terrestrial and aquatic species. (b) Many produce large numbers of gametes to ensure successful reproduction. (c) The behaviours associated with mating are often highly synchronized. (d) The probability of any one egg being fertilized and developing into an adult can be low. 24. Which of the following statement is correct in the process of fertilization ? (a) Only one sperm reaches the egg and enters it. (b) The entry of sperm activates the egg for completing meiosis. (c) Two haploid nuclei fuse and immediately divide to produce two nuclei which are again haploid. (d) Only the acrosome of the sperm enters the egg.

25. Which of the following definitions about oviparity is incorrect ? (a) Only birds and reptiles are oviparous. (b) The large amount of yolk provides the nutrients for the developing embryo. (c) The shell protects the egg from dehydration. (d) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide can diffuse through the shell. 26. Select the incorrect statemen. (a) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour. (b) In oomycetes, female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile. (c) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy. (d) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour. 27. Select the incorrect statements. (a) Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants. (b) Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants. (c) Leeches and tapeworms are bisexual animals. (d) Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals. 28. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) The genetic constitution of a plant is unaffected in vegetative propagation. (ii) Rhizome in ginger serves as an organ of vegetative reproduction. (iii) Totipotency of cells enables us to micropropagate plants. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) only (d) All of these 29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about internal fertilization? (i) Male gametes are motile. (ii) Male gametes are non-motile. (iii) Male gametes are produced in large number. (iv) Male gametes are produced in small number. (v) There is a significant reduction in the number of eggs produced. (a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (v) 30. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (i) Bamboo species flower only once in their life time, generally after 50-100 years and produce large number of fruits and die. (ii) In animals, the juvenile phase is followed by morphological and physiological changes prior to active reproductive behaviour. (iii) The reproductive phase is of same duration in all organisms. (iv) Juvenile phase is the period of growth between the birth of an individual till it reaches reproductive maturity. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)

EBD_7209

Biology

198

Reproduction in Organisms 31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) Stamens are male reproductive part whereas carpels are female reproductive parts. (ii) In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation. (iii) Vegetative propagation by leaves occurs in sweet potato. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) All are correct Which one of the following option is correct regarding the given statements ? (i) The plant was introduced in India because of its beautiful flowers and shape of leaves. (ii) It can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate and spread all over water body in a short period. (iii) It is very difficult to get rid off these plants. (iv) It is associated with flowering plants. (a) Dahlia (b) Water hyacinth (c) Azolla (water fern) (d) Mosses Read the following statements and select the correct ones. (i) Conidia are the asexual propagules restricted to kingdom Fungi. (ii) A piece of potato tuber having at least one eye (or node) is capable of giving rise to a new plant. (iii) Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help of its underground roots. (iv) Fleshy buds which takes part in vegetative propagation are called bulbils, present in Dioscorea, Agave, etc. (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Read the following statements regarding sexual reproduction and selects the incorrect ones. (i) Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals. (ii) Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion. (iii) Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction. (iv) External fertilization is a rule during sexual reproduction. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Which of the following statements regarding the given terms are correct? Runners, Tubers, Offsets (a) These all are incapable of giving rise to new individuals and formation of these structures does not involve two parents. (b) These all are capable of giving rise to new individuals and formation of these structures does not involve two parents. (c) These all are capable of giving rise to new individuals but formation of these structures involves two parents for reproduction. (d) These are all incapable of giving rise to new individuals but formation of these structures involves two parents for reproduction.

199

36.

Which of the following statements regarding the asexual reproduction is incorrect? (a) Both mitotic and meiotic division occurs. (b) It does not contribute to evolution and speciation. (c) It is uniparental and usually occurs in unicellular organisms. (d) There is no variation and the offsprings have the same phenotype and genotype.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 42.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Animals which give I. Hydra birth to young one B. Animal which produces II. Planaria bud C. An animal which III. Viviparous shows regeneration D. Provides nutrition IV. Placenta to the developing embryo from the mother (a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

Match the terms given in column-I with their examples in column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Terms) (Examples) A. Binary fission I. Algae B. Zoospore II. Amoeba C. Conidium III. Hydra D. Budding IV. Penicillium E. Gemmule V. Sponge (a) A – I; B – IV; C – V; D – III; E – II (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – V (c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I (d) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – V Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Column -I Column- II (Name of the (Haploid chromosome organism) number in gamete) A. Ophioglossum (fern) I. 23 B. Rice II. 24 C. Potato III. 12 D. Man IV. 630 (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I Match the organisms (given in column I) with their approximate life span (given in column II) and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Organism) (Approximate life span) A. Butterfly I. 60 years B. Crow II. 140 years C. Parrot III. 15 years D. Crocodile IV. 1 – 2 weeks (a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I Match the name of the organism given in column I with their chromosome number in meiocytes choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Name of the (Chromosome number organism) in meiocyte) (2n) A. House fly I. 20 B. Fruit fly II. 34 C. Apple III. 8 D. Maize IV. 12 (a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I Match the organisms given in column-I with their reproductive structure/mode of reproduction given in column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

48.

49.

50.

51.

Column - I Column - II A. Sponge I. Tuber B. Yeast II. Offset C. Potato III. Gemmules D. Water hyacinth IV. Budding (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I Match the definition (given in column I) with their correct term (given in column II) and choose the correct combination from the options given. Column-I Column-II A. The pollen transferred I. Germination from one flower to another B. The process in which II. Pollination embryo develops into seedling C. Fertilized egg in humans III. Menstruation gets implanted in D. When egg in humans IV. Uterus is not fertilized process occur (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV Which one of the following pair is correctly matched? (a) Onion – Bulb (b) Ginger – Sucker (c) Chlamydomonas – Conidia (d) Yeast – Zoospores Find out the incorrectly matched pair. (a) Tuber – Potato (b) Rhizome – Ginger (c) Bulbil – Agave (d) Leaf buds – Banana Match the column I contain str uctures of male reproductive system and column II contains its feature. Select the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Gamete I. Result of fusion of male and female gametes B. Budding II. Division of body into two equal halves C. Fission III. Germ cells D. Fertilization IV. The fusion of male and female gametes E. Zygote V. An unequal division of organisms in which individual arises as an outgrowth from the parent (a) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV; E - V (b) A - III; B - V; C - II; D - IV; E - I (c) A - III; B - I; C - V; D - II; E - IV (d) A - V; B - IV; C - III; D - I; E - II

EBD_7209

Biology

200

Reproduction in Organisms

201

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 52.

The given figures show the members of fungi and simple plants such as algae which undergo asexual reproduction. Identify the correct asexual reproductive structures found in the members A, B, C and D.

A B C D (a) Tuber Rhizome Bulb Leaf buds (b) Offset Sucker Stolon Leaf buds (c) Offset Stolon Sucker Leaf buds (d) Tuber Rhizome Bulbil Leaf buds 54. The given figure represents the events marked as (A, B, C and D) in the life of general reproduction. Identify the events A, B, C and D.

n A

(A)

Pre-fertilization event

(B)

Chlamydomonas

Penicillium

(D)

Hydra Sponge (a) A-Zoogamete, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D-Gemmule (b) A-Zoospore, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D-Gemmule (c) A-Zoospore, B-Conidiosporangium, C-Bud, D-Gemmule (d) A-Aplanospore, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D-Gemmule 53. The given figures show some examples of angiosperms as A, B, C and D. All these are capable of giving rise to new offsprings with the help of vegetative propagules. Identify the correct unit of vegetative propagules present in these angiosperms. Nodes Bud Leaf scar Node

Post-fertilization event

Buds

(a) A-Gamete transfer, B-Gametogenesis, C-Zygote formation, D-Embryogenesis (b) A-Gametogenesis, B-Gamete transfer, C-Zygote formation, D-Embryogenesis (c) A-Gametogenesis, B-Zygote formation, C-Gamete transfer, D-Embryogenesis (d) A-Gametogenesis, B-Gamete transfer, CEmbryogenesis, D-Zygote formation. 55. The given figure refers to which type of reproduction in yeast?

(a) Binary fission (b) Budding (c) Layering (d) Fusion 56. The given figures (A, B and C) are types of gametes of different organisms. Identify gametes (A, B and C) respectively.

Adventitious root

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d) C

fertilization 2n

Mouth

(C)

(B)

(C)

Heterogametes, Isogametes, Homogametes Isogametes, Homogametes, Heterogametes Homogametes, Isogametes, Heterogametes Homo/Isogametes, Heterogametes, Heterogametes

57.

The given figures (i to v) represent the process of binary fission in Amoeba. (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(a) Tuber (c) Sucker

(v)

58.

Arrange the figures in the correct sequence and choose the correct option. (a) (iv) ® (iii) ® (i) ® (ii) ® (v) (b) (iii) ® (iv) ® (i) ® (ii) ® (v) (c) (iii) ® (v) ® (ii) ® (iv) ® (i) (d) (iv) ® (iii) ® (ii) ® (v) ® (i) Which of the labelled parts (X and Y) in the transverse section of pea plant is/are diploid ?

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 61.

62.

63.

X Y

59.

(a) X (b) Y (c) Both X and Y (d) None of these The given figures P (plant Chara) and Q (earthworm) have label A, B, C and D as their reproductive organs. Select the option which correctly identifies male reproductive organs of the two organisms.

64.

65.

66. D

60.

Q P (a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) B and D In the given figure of water hyacinth, a structure is marked as "X". This structure is involved in vegetative propagation as a unit of vegetative propagules. Identify the type of unit.

(b) Offsets (d) Rhizome

67.

If basal half of an onion bulb is removed and upper half is sown in the ground then the new plant will (a) emerge normally. (b) not emerge. (c) be without leaves. (d) be without flowers. If soil around stem of potato plant is constantly removed from very young stage then only roots remain in the soil then the potato tubers in plant will (a) be larger (b) be smaller (c) be formed normally (d) not be formed The site of origin of the new plantlets in potato, dahlia, ginger and banana is (a) floral buds present on stem. (b) internodes of modified stem. (c) nodes of modified stem. (d) adventitious buds present on root. Which is the most common method of reproduction in majority of fungi and bacteria ? (a) Binary fission (b) Multiple fission (c) Budding (d) Spore formation A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast is that (a) they reproduce asexually. (b) they are all unicellular. (c) they reproduce only sexually. (d) they are all multicellular. Sexual reproduction involves (a) meiosis only. (b) meiosis and fusion of gametes. (c) both mitosis and meiosis. (d) all of the above Some organisms are capable of asexual or sexual reproduction. Under favourable conditions, reproduction proceeds asexually. When conditions become more stressful reproduction switches to a sexual mode. Why? (a) Sexual reproduction is simple and more rapid allowing larger numbers of offspring to be produced.

EBD_7209

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Reproduction in Organisms

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

(b) Sexual reproduction requires two separate individuals, who can mutually provide nutrient support during stress. (c) Sexual reproduction produces individuals with new combinations of recombined ch romosomes increasing diversity. (d) Asexual reproduction requires more energy. Seeds are regarded to be the product of sexual reproduction because they (a) can be stored for a long period. (b) give rise to new plants. (c) are the result of fusion of male gamete with the female gamete. (d) none of the above After culturing the anther of a plant, a few diploid plants were found along with haploid plants. The diploid plants could have arisen from (a) generative cell of pollen. (b) cells of anther wall. (c) vegetative cell of pollen. (d) exine of pollen wall. "X" is the vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation to the next. Every sexually reproducing organism begins life as a single cell "X". Identify "X". (a) Zygote (b) Gamete (c) Embryo (d) None of the above Which of the following has to occur if a diploid body has to produce haploid gametes? (a) Meiosis (b) Mitosis (c) Fertilization (d) Embryo transfer Development of zygote depends on (a) life cycle of the organism (b) environment it is exposed to (c) both (a) and (b) (d) nutrition of organism

203

73.

Meiocytes is observed in all except (a) human egg (b) blue-green algae (c) equisetum (d) dicot plant 74. In a practical test, a student has to identify the organisms in which syngamy does not occur. In those organisms the female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilization. This phenomenon is called "X". Identify the organisms and the phenomenon "X". (a) Frog, Parthenogenesis (b) Lizards, Gametogenesis (c) Rotifers, Embryogenesis (d) Honeybee, Parthenogenesis 75. Which of the followings sequences are correct for plants and animals? (i) animals Juvenile phase ® Senescent phase ® Reproductive phase (ii) animals Juvenile phase ® Repr oductive phase ® Senescent phase (iii) plants Reproductive phase ® Juvenile phase ® Senescent phase (iv) plants animals Vegetative phase ® Reproductive phase ® Senescent phase (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) 76. Offsprings of oviparous animals are at greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals because (a) proper embryonic care and protection is lesser. (b) embryo is not developed. (c) progenies are with more variation. (d) progenies are larger.

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

10.

Flowers are highly modified _______. (a) Root (b) Shoot (c) Stem (d) Leaves A typical flower has ______different kinds of whorl. (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five Anther is typically (a) tetrasporangiate (b) bisporangiate (c) trisporangiate (d) monosporangiate The functions of tapetum is to (a) produce ubisch bodies. (b) produce pollen grains. (c) provide nourishment to the developing pollen grains. (d) store and protect pollen grains. Microsporogenesis occurs (a) on margins of leaves. (b) inside the ovule. (c) inside the anther. (d) in essential floral organs. Exine of pollen grain is formed of (a) callose (b) pecto-cellulose (c) ligno-cellulose (d) sporopollenin One of the most resistant known biological material is. (a) lignin (b) hemicellulose (c) sporopollenin (d) lignocellulose Pollen grain is liberated at (a) one celled stage. (b) two celled stage. (c) three celled stage. (d) two or three celled stage. Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at _________. (a) 70°C (b) 100°C (c) – 196°C (d) 0°C Ovule is (a) megasporangium (b) megasporophyll (c) integumented megasporangium (d) rolled megasporophyll

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Ovules are attached to a parenchymatous cushion called (a) nucellus (b) obturator (c) conducting tissue (d) placenta The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is (a) chalaza (b) hilum (c) raphe (d) endothelium Egg apparatus consists of (a) egg cell and antipodal cells. (b) egg cell and central cell. (c) egg cell and two synergids. (d) egg cell and one synergid. The most common type of ovule is __________ . (a) orthotropous (b) hemitropous (c) anatropous (d) campylotropous Filiform apparatus is found in (a) synergids (b) anther wall (c) secondary nucleus (d) egg cell Polygonum type of embryo sac/typical female gametophyte of angiosperms is (a) 7-celled, 7-nucleate (b) 7-celled, 8-nucleate (c) 8-celled, 7-nucleate (d) 8-celled, 8-nucleate Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called (a) geitonogamy (b) xenogamy (c) autogamy

18.

Chapter

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

(d) cleistogamy

Cleistogamous flowers are (a) wind pollinated (b) self-pollinated (c) cross-pollinated (d) insect pollinated Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in (a) Helianthus (b) Lommelina (c) Rosa (d) Gossypium Pollination by water occurs in (a) Vallisneria

(b) Zostera

(d) All of these

Bees are important to agriculture as they (a) produce wax

(b) perform pollination

(d) produce honey

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 22.

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Vegetative fertilization involves fusion of (a) two polar nuclei (b) a male gamete and a synergid (c) a male gamete and antipodal cell (d) nucleus of a male gamete and secondary nucleus During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with (a) synergids cell (b) central cell (c) antipodal cell (d) nucellar cell Endosperm is generally (a) diploid (b) triploid (c) haploid (d) polyploid Milky water of green coconut is (a) liquid chalaza (b) liquid nucellus (c) liquid endosperm (d) liquid female gametophyte Scutellum is present in the embryo of (a) pea (b) Ranunculus (c) Triticum (d) None of these Perisperm is a (a) degenerate part of synergids. (b) peripheral part of endosperm. (c) degenerate part of secondary nucleus. (d) remnant of nucellus. False fruits (thalamus also contributes to fruit formation) are found in (a) apple and pear (b) strawberry (c) cashewnut (d) All of these Seeds are adoptively important because (a) they maintain dormancy. (b) they protect young plants during vulnerable stages. (c) they store food for young plants and facilitate disperal. (d) All of the above The seed in which endosperm is used by embryo is called __________ seed. (a) single (b) albuminous (c) endospermic (d) non-endospermic Apomixis is the (a) development of plants in darkness.

205

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 33.

34.

35.

36.

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(b) development of plants without fusion of gametes. (c) inability to perceive stimulus for flowering. (d) effect of low temperature on plant growth. 32.

Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of (a) Brassica

(b) Gossypium

(d) Citrus

40.

Which of the following statement is correct for the pollen tube? (a) It shows chemotactic movement. (b) It shows only tip growth. (c) It is composed of three non-cellular zones. (d) It shows radial cytoplasmic streaming. Which of the following statement is incorrect about emasculation? (a) During emasculation process, stigma is removed. (b) Emasculated flowers are bagged in order to prevent self-pollination. (c) Emasculation is the removal of stamens before the maturation of selected bisexual flowers. (d) It is one of the steps for artificial hybridization. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? (a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place. (b) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell. (c) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months. (d) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin. Which of the following statement about sporopollenin is incorrect? (a) Exine is made up of sporopollenin. (b) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic materials. (c) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present. (d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids. Which one of the following events takes place after double fertilization? (a) The pollen grain germinates on the stigma. (b) The pollen tubes enter the embryo sac. (c) Two male gametes are discharged into the embryo sac. (d) The PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus) develops into endosperm. Which one of the following statement is correct? (a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid. (b) Endothecium produces the microspores. (c) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen. (d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine. Which one of the following statement is correct? (a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants. (b) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous. (c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination. (d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about self-incompatibility ? (i) It is a device to prevent inbreeding. (ii) It provides a biochemical block to self-fertilization. (iii) It ensures cross-fertilization. (iv) It is governed by pollen-pistil interaction.

41.

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(v) It is governed by series of multiple alleles. (vi) It prevents self-pollen (from the same flower of other flowers of the same plant) from fertilizing the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination of pollen tube growth in the pistil. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iv) and (v) (c) All of the above (d) None of the above Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ? (i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of zygote. (ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N while gymnospermic one is N. (iii) The most common type of endosperm is nuclear. (iv) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and cellular endosperm. (v) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female gametophyte. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) Only (v) (d) Only (ii) Which of the following statements are correct for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant? (i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity. (ii) It is free-nuclear during the development. (iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus. (iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Study the following statements and select the correct option. (i) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains. (ii) Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle. (iii) In aquatic plants, such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is by water. (iv) The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid. (a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are incorrect. (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct but (iii) is incorrect. (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect. (d) (i) and (iv) are correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect. Seeds are adaptively important because (i) they maintain dormancy. (ii) they protect young plants during vulnerable stages. (iii) they store food for young plants, and facilitate dispersal. Identify the correct reasons. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) All of the above Which of the given statements are true? (i) During the development of a dicot embryo heart

shaped embryo is followed by globular enlarge. (ii) The part of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is epicotyl while the part below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl. (iii) Monocot seeds possess a sin gle cotyledon represented by scutellum. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) (ii) and (iii)

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 51.

Match the biotic agent of cross pollination given in columnI with their feature given in column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Zoophily I. Pollination by birds B. Ornithophily II. Pollination by insects C. Entomophily III. Pollination by bats D. Chiropterophily IV. Pollination by animals (a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Match the parts of gynoceium given in column I with their definition given in column II. Choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column-I Column-II A. Funicle I. Mass of cells within ovule with more food B. Hilum II. Basal part of ovule C. Integument III. One or Two protective layers of ovule D. Chalaza IV. Region where body of ovule fuses with funicle E. Nucellus V. Stalk of ovule (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I (c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – V (d) A – I; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – IV 53. Match the items given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and choose the correct option given below. Column-I Column-II (Items) (Examples) A. Ovary I. Groundnut, mustard B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed E. Dry fruits V. Fruit (a) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V (d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III 54. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and choose the correct option given below. Column-I Column-II A. Parthenocarpy I. Inactive state B. Polyembryony II. Meiosis and syngamy are absent C. Apomixis III. Occurrence of more than one embryo D. Dormancy IV. Seedless fruit (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV 55. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and chose the correct option given below. Column-I Column-II A. Tapetum I. Irregular in shape with abundant food reserve B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid protective layer D. Vegetative cell IV. Involve in the formation of microspores E. Sporogenous V. Oily and sticky layer, help tissue in pollination.

207

52.

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(a) A – II; B – III; C – V; D – IV; E – I (b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V (d) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – III Match the items given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and identify the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Coleorhiza I. Grapes B. Food storing tissue II. Mango C. Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize D. Single seeded fruit developing IV. Radicle from monocarpellary superior ovary E. Membranous seed coat V. Endosperm (a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V (b) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I; E – III (c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II (d) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III Which of the following is a mismatched pair? (a) Microsporangium – Pollen sac (b) Megasporangium – Ovule (c) Microsporophyll – Stamen (d) Megasporophyll – Filament Which of the following is a mismatched pair? (a) Storage of pollen grains – – 196°C (b) Pollen allergy – Carrot grass (c) Chasmogamous flowers – Exposed anthers and stigmas (d) Xenogamy – Self-pollination

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 59.

The given figure shows a typical stamen (a) and three dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify A to D respectively marked in the figures (a & b) A D C Line of dehiscence

B (b) (a)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Anther, Petiole, Pollen sac and Megaspore Anther, Petiole, Megasporangium and Pollen grains Anther, Pedicel, Megasporangium and Pollen grains Anther, Filament, Pollen sac and Pollen grains

60.

The given diagram refers to a T. S. of anther. Identify A to E respectively

Diagram given below shows the stages in embryogenesis in a typical dicot plant (Capsella). Identify the structures A to D respectively

Connective C E A

61.

63.

B (a) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, epidermis, middle layer, endothecium (b) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, tapetum, middle layer, endothecium (c) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, middle layer, tapetum, endothecium (d) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, middle layer, epidermis, endothecium Identify A, B, C, D and E structures marked in the given figure of a mature embryo sac. Chalazas end A

A B Zygote

D Heart-Shaped Embryo

C Mature Embryo (a) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons (b) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons (c) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons (d) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Hypocotyls The given figure represent the L.S of a flower showing growth of pollen tube. Few structures are marked as A, B, C, D & E. Identify A, B, C, D and E respectively. Globular Embryo

64.

C D

C B Egg

Pollen tube E

D E Micropylar end A B C D E Antipodal Central cell Polar nuclei Synergids Acrosome (a) cells Antipodal Central cell Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform (b) cells apparatus

62.

(c)

65. Synergids Central cell Polar nuclei Antipodal Filiform cells apparatus

(d)

Synergids M egaspore Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform mother cell apparatus

Which of the following figure, showing types of gynoecium, is associated with wind pollination ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

A B Egg cell Synergid

(a) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Style, Chalaza (b) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Style, Stigma, Chalaza (c) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Chalaza, Style (d) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Chalaza, Stigma, Style In the given figure of pollen grain tetrad, identify the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E. A B C D E

(a) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C - Intine, D Exine, E - Vegetative cell (b) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C - Exine, D Intine, E - Vegetative cell (c) A - Intine, B - Exine, C - Germ pore, D - Generative cell, E - Vegetative cell (d) A - Exine, B - intine, C - Vegetative cell, D - Germ pore, E - Generative cell

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 66.

67.

209

Identified A, B, C and D in the given figure of false fruit of apple.

69.

(a) A – Mesocarp; B – Endocarp; C – Seed; D – Thalamus (b) A – Seed; B – Thalamus; C – Mesocarp; D – Endocarp (c) A – Thalamus; B – Seed; C – Endocarp; D – Mesocarp (d) A – Mesocarp; B – Endocarp; C – Seed; D – Thalamus Choose the option showing the correct labelling A, B, C and D in the given figure of a dicot embryo.

B C

70.

68.

(a) A – Hypocotyl; B – Cotyledons; C – Root cap; D – Radicle (b) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Root cap; D – Radicle (c) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Radicle; D – Root cap (d) A – Cotyledons; B – Radicle; C – Hypocotyl; D – Root cap. The given diagram shows two plants of the same species. Identify the type of pollination indicated as P1, P2 and P3.

The given figure shows a diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule, in which some parts are typical anatropous ovule, in which some parts are marked as A, B, C, & D. Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C & D from the options given below.

(a) A – Chalazal pole; B – Micropyle; C – Embryo sac; D –Nucellus (b) A – Micropyle; B – Chalazal pole; C – Embryo sac; D – Nucellus (c) A – Micropyle; B – Chalazal pole; C – Nucellus; D – Embryo sac (d) A – Micropyle; B – Nucellus; C – Embryo sac; D – Chalazal pole The given figure shows the L.S. of a monocot embryo. Choose the correct labelling for A, B, C and D marked in the figure from the options given below. A

P3 P1 P2 D

(a) Allogamy

Chasmogamy Cleistogamy

(b) Autogamy

Xenogamy

Geitonogamy Xenogamy

(d) Geitonogamy Allogamy

Geitonogamy Autogamy

(a) A – Coleoptile; B – Scutellum; C – Epiblast; D – Coleorhiza (b) A – Scutellum; B – Coleoptile; C – Coleorhiza; D – Epiblast (c) A – Scutellum; B – Epiblast; C – Coleoptile; D – Coleorhiza (d) A – Scutellum; B – Coleoptile; C – Epiblast; D – Coleorhiza

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 71.

72.

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80.

The largest cell in a embryo sac is (a) egg (b) central cell (c) synergid (d) antipodal cell Which one of the following is not related to other three? (a) Archaegonium (b) Oogonium (c) Ovule (d) Antheridium In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in (a) antipodal, egg and endosperm. (b) egg, nucellus and endosperm. (c) endosperm, nucellus and egg. (d) antipodals, synergids and integuments. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in (a) coconut (b) groundnut (c) gram (d) maize Which of the following floral parts forms pericarp after fertilization ? (a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument (c) Ovary wall (d) Inner integument Product of sexual reproduction generally generates (a) prologned dormancy. (b) new genetic combination leading to variation. (c) large biomass. (d) longer viability of seeds. Sequence of development during the formation of embryo sac is (a) Archesporium ® Megaspore ® Megaspore mother cell ® Embryo sac. (b) Megasporocyte ® Archesporium ® Megaspore ® Embryo sac. (c) Megaspore ® Megaspore moth er cell ® Archesporium ® Embryo sac. (d) Archesporium ® Megaspore mother cell ® Megaspore ® Embryo sac. Which of the following processes is necessary for the complete development of male gametophyte? (a) One meiotic cell division and two mitotic cell divisions. (b) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell division. (c) Two meiotic cell divisions and one mitotic cell division. (d) Two mitotic cell divisions. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after (a) meiotic division. (b) mitotic division. (c) formation of a thick wall. (d) differentiation. How many meiotic division are required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores? (a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 25

81.

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The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization in angiosperms are (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five Unisexuality of flowers prevents (a) geitonogamy but not xenogamy. (b) autogamy and geitonogamy. (c) autogamy but not geitonogamy. (d) both geitonogamy and xenogamy. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in (a) perisperm (b) endosperm (c) cotyledons (d) hypocotyl Pollination occurs in (a) bryophytes and angiosperms. (b) pteridophytes and angiosperms. (c) angiosperms and gymnosperms. (d) angiosperms and fungi. An advantage of cleistogamy is that (a) it leads to greater genetic diversity. (b) seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread. (c) each visit of pollinator brings hundreds of pollen grains. (d) seed set is not dependent upon pollinators. Point out the odd one from the given options. (a) Nucellus (b) Embryo sac (c) Micropyle (d) Pollen grain While planning for an artificial hybridization programme if the female parent have unisexual flowers, then which of the following steps would not be relevant? (a) Bagging of female flower. (b) Dusting of pollen on stigma. (c) Emasculation. (d) Collection of pollen. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures are (a) coleorhiza and coleoptile. (b) coleoptile and scutellum (c) cotyledons and scutellum (d) hypocotyl and radicle Total number of meiotic division required for forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is (a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 125 (d) 50 The endosperm found in angiospermic seed is different from that of gymnosperms in the sense that, in the former (a) it is formed before fertilization while in the latter it is formed after fertilization. (b) it is formed after fertilization. (c) it is cellular while in the latter it is nuclear. (d) it is nutritive while in the latter it is protective.

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 91.

92.

93.

94.

For artificial hybridization experiment in bisexual flower, which of the following sequences is correct ? (a) Bagging ® Emasculation ® Cross-pollination ® Rebagging (b) Emasculation ® Bagging ® Cross-pollination ® Rebagging (c) Cross-pollination ® Bagging ® Emasculation ® Rebagging (d) Self-pollination ® Bagging ® Emasculation ® Rebagging If a diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are crossed, the ploidy of endosperm shall be (a) tetraploid (b) triploid (c) diploid (d) pentaploid In a seed of maize, scutellum is considered as cotyledon because it (a) protects the embryo. (b) contains food for the embryo. (c) absorbs food materials and supplies them to the embryo. (d) converts itself into a monocot leaf. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic division in ten microspore mother cells? (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80

211

95.

96.

97.

Multinucleate condition is present in (a) quiescent centre (b) maize (c) meristematic tissue (d) liquid endosperm of coconut Through which part of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac? (a) Egg cell (b) Persistent synergid (c) Degenerated synergid (d) Central cell What is the main function of filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the ovule? (a) It prevents the entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac. (b) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into an antipodal cell. (c) It helps the pollen tube to enter the ovule through chalazal end. (d) It guides the entry of pollen tube into a synergid and discharge the male gametes.

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The __________ lead to vas deferens that ascends to the ______ and loops over the __________. (a) prostate, stomach, urinary bladder. (b) epididymis, abdomen, urinary bladder. (c) vas efferentia, abdomen, ureter. (d) urinary bladder, ejaculatory duct, abdomen. The enlarged end of penis is covered by a loose fold of skin is called. (a) glans penis (b) foreskin (c) hymen (d) urethral meatus Which of the following is a transporting tube leading from the bladder to which brings urine outside the body via penis? (a) Ureter (b) Epididymis (c) Ejaculatory duct (d) Urethra meatus Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from (a) epididymis to urethra. (b) vas deferens to epididymis. (c) rete testis to vas deferens. (d) testicular lobules to rete testis. A sac shaped like an upside down pear with a thick lining and muscles in the pelvic area where a fertilized egg or zygote comes to grow into a baby is called _______. (a) oviduct (b) uterus (c) vagina (d) vulva Which of the following is a finger like structure and lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening? (a) Clitoris (b) Oviduct (c) Ampulla (d) Chorionic villi Which of the following produces sperms in spermatogenesis? (a) Sertoli cells. (b) Interstitial cells. (c) Primary spermatocytes. (d) Immature male germ cells.

10.

11.

12.

13.

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15.

Chapter

Human Reproduction

In the process of spermatogenesis, first maturation division is called _______. (a) mitotic division (b) reduction division (c) amitotic division (d) None of the these Spermatids are transformed into sperm by a process called_______. (a) spermiation (b) implantation (c) insemination (d) spermiogenesis In humans, male germs cells differentiate into _____ at the end of first meiotic division. (a) spermatid (b) spermatogonium (c) secondary spermatocyte (d) primary spermatocyte Increased secretion of which hormone start the process of sperm formation at the time of puberty? (a) GH (b) TSH (c) PRL (d) GnRH After birth, colostrum is released from mammary glands which is rich in (a) fat and low in proteins (b) proteins and low in fat (c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat (d) proteins, fat and low in antibodies Which of the following hormone maintains the function of male sex accessory gland and ducts? (a) Estrogen (b) Androgen (c) Progesterone (d) Luteinizing hormone Semen is a constituent of seminal plasma with _______. (a) ovum (b) sperm (c) zygote (d) follicle Ejaculation of human male contains about 200 – 300 million sperms, of which for normal fertility ____ % sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ____% must show energetic motility. (a) 40, 60 (b) 50, 50 (c) 60, 40 (d) 30, 70

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Human Reproduction 16.

17.

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24.

25.

Which of the following stage of oogenesis forms a membrane called zona pellucida surrounding it? (a) Oogonia (b) Polar body (c) Corpus luteum (d) Secondary oocytes By which process sperms released from the seminiferous tubules? (a) Spermiation (b) Insemination (c) Spermatogenesis (d) Spermiogenesis Which of the following contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum? (a) Primary spermatocyte. (b) Primary follicle of ovary. (c) Tertiary follicle of ovary. (d) Secondary spermatocyte. Menstruation is triggered by a sudden decline in the amount of hormone secreted by corpus luteum. Identify the hormone. (a) Luteinizing hormone (b) Follicle stimulating hormone (c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen Level of which hormones are at their highest during the luteal phase (second half of the cycle) of the menstrual cycle? (a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Follicular stimulating hormone Which phase of menstrual cycle is also called proliferative phase? (a) Luteal (b) Ovulatory (c) Follicular (d) Menstruation Which phase of menstrual cycle is also called secretory phase? (a) Luteal (b) Ovulatory (c) Follicular (d) Menstruation Which of the following indicates pregnancy? (a) Lack of menstruation. (b) Occurrence of menstrual flow. (c) When released ovum is not fertilized. (d) When Graafian follicle matures and endometrium regenerates through proliferation. When semen is released by the penis into the vagina during copulation, then it is called _____. (a) ovulation (b) insemination (c) menstruation (d) gametogenesis At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called _______. (a) zygote (b) blastocysts (c) embryo (d) foetus

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26. Fusion of haploid nucleus of sperm and that of ovum lead to the formation of _______. (a) zygote (b) blastocysts (c) embryo (d) foetus 27. Which of the following differentiate into embryo? (a) Morula (b) Zygote (c) Trophoblast (d) Inner cell mass 28. Trophoblast and inner cell mass are the arrangements of blastomeres as outer and inner layers respectively in _______. (a) zygote (b) morula (c) placenta (d) blastocysts 29. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called ________. (a) zygote (b) morula (c) placenta (d) blastocysts 30. Presence of XX or XY chromosomes in zygote depends on (a) the sperm carrying X chromosome fertilized the ovum. (b) the sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilized the ovum. (c) the sperm without any chromosome fertilized the ovum. (d) the sperm carrying X or Y chromosomes fertilized the ovum. 31. Which layer of blastocysts gets attached to the endometrium? (a) Trophoblast (b) Inner cell mass (c) Umbilical cord (d) Both (a) and (c) 32. Finger like projection, called chorionic villi, appear on the _________ after the implantation. (a) ampulla (b) trophoblast (c) infundibulum (d) inner cell mass 33. Which of the following hormones is produced in women only during pregnancy? (a) Relaxin (b) Estrogen (c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone 34. The placenta is formed from the _______ of the embryo and the _______ of the mother. (a) uterus, trophoblast (b) chorion, endometrium (c) endometrium, chorion (d) inner cell mass, endometrium 35. Placenta acts as an (a) Embryo (b) Corpus luteum (c) Exocrine gland (d) Endocrine tissue 36. Primary germ layers are (a) ectoderm and inner cell mass only. (b) trophoblast, ectoderm and mesoderm. (c) endoderm and mesoderm only. (d) ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

Which of the following hormone acts on uterine muscle and causes its stronger contraction? (a) Relaxin (b) Estrogen (c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone Colostrum (a) is a hormone essential for milk secretion. (b) can be synthesized by the newborn infant but not by a foetus. (c) stimulates further secretion of oxytocin for uterine contraction. (d) is a source of antibodies essential to develop resistance against diseases in new born babies. Secretion of milk from the mammary gland towards the end of the pregnancy is called_____. (a) lactation (b) parturition (c) fertilization (d) implantation Two types of cells present in the lining of seminiferous tubules are _______ and _______. (a) leydig cells, sertoli cells. (b) male germ cells, sertoli cells. (c) spermatogonium, spermatids. (d) primary oocyte, leydig cells. The womb opens into vagina through _______. (a) cervix (b) hymen (c) clitoris (d) ampulla First polar body is formed during the formation of _______ and completion of ___ meiotic division. (a) Primary oocytes, II (b) Secondary oocytes, I (c) Secondary spermatocytes, II (d) Primary spermatocytes, I Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte results in the formation of (a) first polar body and a diploid ovum. (b) first polar body and a haploid ovum. (c) second polar body and a diploid ovum. (d) second polar body and a haploid ovum In human female, menopause is a stage in which (a) oogenesis starts at puberty. (b) menstruation starts at puberty. (c) corpus luteum starts secreting progesterone for maintaining pregnancy. (d) menstruation stops at the age of 50 years and reproductive capacity is arrested. Which of the following process induces the completion of the meiotic division of secondary oocyte? (a) Parturition (b) Implantation (c) Fertilization (d) Gametogenesis _______ is a sticky white or yellow fluid secreted by the breasts during the second half of pregnancy and for a

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

few days after birth, before breast milk comes in. (a) Placenta (b) Colostrum (c) Egg yolk (d) Blood cells Which gland releases a small amount of fluid just prior to ejaculation to decrease acidity in the urethra caused by urine? (a) Prostate (b) Glans penis (c) Seminal vesicle (d) Bulbourethral gland By the end of how many weeks, major organ system are formed during the embryonic development? (a) 4 weeks (b) 8 weeks (c) 12 weeks (d) 24 weeks Which of the following induces foetal ejection reflex? (a) Initiation of lactation (b) Fully developed foetus and placenta (c) Expulsion of the baby out of the uterus. (d) Transport of embryo in the fallopian tube. Identify the structure on the basis of the given statement which surrounds the primary sex organ of male reproductive system. "It is responsible for maintaining the low temperature by about 2 - 2.5º C from normal body temperature to mature sperm." (a) Penis (b) Scrotum (c) Ureter (d) Urethra Which of the following is not a paired structure in male? (a) Urethra (b) Vas deferens (c) Epididymis (d) Ejaculatory duct Blastomeres are daughter cells formed in the process of (a) cleavage, when zygote undergoes mitotic division. (b) fertilization, when sperm enters in the cytoplasm of ovum. (c) implantation, when blastocysts attached to the uterine endometrium. (d) gametogenesis, when male and female gametes are produced by testis and ovary respectively

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 53.

Which of the following statements regarding sertoli cell is correct? (a) It is found in seminiferous tubule and secrete testosterone hormone. (b) It is a place where spermatozoa is concentrated and stored until ejaculation. (c) It secretes spermatozoa activating substances like fructose, citrate, inositol, prostaglandin and protein. (d) It is found in seminiferous tubule and function as nurse cells for differentiating spermatozoa.

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Human Reproduction 54. The sperm and the egg make different contributions to zygote. Which of the following statements about their contributions are true? (i) Sperm contributes most of the mitochondria. (ii) Egg contributes most of the cytoplasm. (iii) Both sperm and egg contribute haploid nucleus. (iv) Both sperm and egg contribute centrioles. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iiii) and (iv) (d) All of these 55. Read the following statements (i to iv) and answer the following question. (i) Each testes has highly coiled 250 compartments called seminiferous tubules. (ii) Erection of the penis due to presence of special tissues facilitates insemination. (iii) Immunologically competent cells are also present in the interstitial spaces of seminiferous tubules. (iv) Testes lie outside the abdominal cavity in a thin pouch like skin called scrotum. (v) Bulbourethral gland is a single accessory gland. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (v) (c) (i) and (v ) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v) 56. Which of the following is true regarding the male reproductive system? (a) Sperms are diploid. (b) It includes testes, accessory ducts and glands, and oviducts. (c) The scrotum keeps the testes warmer, thus helping it to promote the sperm formation. (d) Sertoli cells are found in seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells. 57. Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the following question. (i) This structure is also called womb. (ii) Its shape is like an inverted pear. (iii) The process of fertilization takes place in this structure. (iv) The wall of this structure has three layers of tissue. (v) It secretes several steroid hormones. Identify the correct characteristics feature regarding uterus from the above statements. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) All the five statements. 58. Which of the following statements regarding mammary gland is incorrect? (a) They are paired glandular structure that lies over the pectoral muscles. (b) Each gland has 100 – 500 lobulated milk glands each

215

59.

60.

61.

62.

having a number of lobules containing number of alveoli. (c) The cells of alveoli secrete milk which is stored in the cavity of the alveoli. (d) Each milk gland or lobules has lactiferous ducts that drain into openings in the nipple. Select the correct statements regarding oogenesis. (i) It is initiated during the embryonic development stage when millions of oogonia are formed within each ovary. (ii) Graafian follicle releases primary oocyte from the ovary by ovulation. (iii) At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary. (iv) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicles grows in size and completes its second meiotic division. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) all the four statements. Which of the following statement is correct regarding menstruation? (a) The menstrual fluid can easily clot. (b) The end of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche. (c) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt decrease in gonadotropic hormones. (d) In human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of combination of estrogen and progesterone. Which of the following is required for the increased production of estrogen, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin and thyroxine etc. in the maternal blood? (i) Metabolic changes in the mother. (ii) Maintenance of pregnancy. (iii) Supporting the foetal growth (iv) Destruction of Graafian follicle (a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All the four statements. Which of the following statement regarding female reproductive system is (are) correct? (i) Myometrium undergoes strong contraction at the time of delivery of baby. (ii) Ovary is secondary female sex organ which produces female gamete and steroid hormones. (iii) Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones: inner cortex and outer medulla. (iv) Infundibulum possess finger like projections which help in collection of ovum after the release of secondary oocyte. (v) A functional mammary gland is the characteristics of all the mammals (including male and female). (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) All the five statements

63.

Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the question. (i) It produces several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens etc. (ii) It differentiates into three embryonic membranes – ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm. (iii) It undergoes mitotic division. (iv) It is the organ, formed in the lining of the uterus by the union of the uterine mucous membrane with the membranes of the foetus. (v) It develops at a point of implantation and providing oxygen and nutrients for the foetus and transfer of waste products from the foetal to the maternal blood circulation. Identify the correct characteristics feature regarding placenta from the above statements. (a) (iii) and (v) (b) (i), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) all the four statements. 64. Which of the following statements regarding parturition is incorrect? (a) Prolactin induces uterine contraction. (b) It is induced by neuroendocrine mechanism. (c) Uterine contraction leads to expulsion of baby through the birth canal. (d) Oxytocin plays an important role in the contraction of fallopian tube.

telolecithal. 71. Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule called interstitial spaces. Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli cells. 72. Assertion : Testicular lobules are the compartments present in testis. Reason : These lobules are involved in the process of fertilization. 73. Assertion : Head of sperm consists of acrosome and mitochondria. Reason : Acrosome contains spiral row of mitochondria.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 74. In the given columns, column I contain structures of male reproductive system and column II contains its feature. Select the correct match from the options given below. Column I Column II (Structure of Male (Features) Reproductive System) A. Seminiferous tubule I. Network of seminiferous tubule B. Rete testis II. Secon dary sexual characters C. Leydig cells III. Meiosis and sperm formation occurs D. Prepuce IV. Place of implantation V. Terminal skin of penis (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V 75. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched? (a) Leydig cells – Testosterone (b) Spermatogenesis – Seminiferous tubules (c) Male reproductive system – Pelvis region (d) Spermatogonia – Mitotic division 76. In the given columns, column-I contain structures of female reproductive system and column-II contain its feature. Select the correct match from the option given below. Column-I Column-II (Structures of female (Features) reproductive system) A. Ampulla I. It undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle. B. Labia majora II. It helps in collection of ovum after ovulation. C. Oviduct III. Wider part of fallopian tube where fusion of male and female gametes takes place.

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Fimbriae

IV.

Larger hairy folds which extend down from the mons pubis and surrounds the vaginal opening. E. Endometrium V. Also called fallopian tubes, which extend from the periphery of each ovary to the womb. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV (c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I 77. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Match from the options given below Column-I Column-II A. Primary oocyte I. It is formed when oogonia starts division and temporarily arrested at prophase of meiosis I. B. Secondary oocyte II. A large haploid cell which retains bulk of nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte. C. Primary follicle III. A large number of these degenerate durin g th e phase from puberty to birth. D. Oogonia IV. Gamete mother cell. E.

Secondary follicle V.

Surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca. F. Graafian follicle VI. Rupture to release ovum from the ovary. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V; F – VI (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V; F – VI (c) A – VI; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I; F – III (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I; F – VI 78. In the given columns, column-I contain various phases of menstrual cycle and column -II contain its features. Select the correct match from the options given below. Column-I Column-II (Phases of menstrual (Features) cycle) A. Menstrual phase I. Breakdown of endometrial lining of uterus along with its blood vessels which form liquid that comes out of vagina. B. Luteal phase II. A temporary endocrine gland is formed and secretes a hormone which maintains endometrium and implantation of

fertilized ovum and other events of pregnancy. C. Follicular phase III. Secretion of luteinizing hormone at its maximum level and induces breakdown of mature follicle to release the female gamete D Ovulatory phase IV. Formation of mature Graafian follicle and regeneration of endometrium of uterus. (a) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III 79. In the given columns, column-I contain features of developing child and column-II contain the time of their occurrence. Select the correct match. Column-I Column-II (Features of (Time of there developing child) occurrence) A. Heart sound I. By the end of the second month of pregnancy B. Foetus develops II. During the fifth month limbs and digit C. Formation of III. First sign of growing major organ system foetus D. First movement IV. By the end of 12 weeks of foetus and appearance of hair on head E. Body covered with V. By the end of 24 weeks hair, eyelid separate, eyelashes are formed (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV (d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I 80. Match the hormones given in column-I with their functions given in column-II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Hormones) (Functions) A. Luteinizing I. Develop corpus luteum hormone B. Progesterone II. Essential for maintenance of uterine layer (called endometrium) C. Estrogen III. Develops female secondary sexual characters

Follicle stimulating IV. Maturation of Graafian hormone follicle

E. Oxytocin

V. Causes uterine contraction.

(a) A – I; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E – V (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V 81.

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 83.

The given figure shows the male reproductive system. Some structures are marked as A, B, C, and D. Identify the structure whose removal will cause the sperm to be reacted with acidic urine in the urethra.

(d) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV

(a) A

Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option.

(b) B

Column-I

A B C

Column-II

A Fertilization

Mitotic division

B Implantation

II.

Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres

C Cleavage

III. Ampullary-isthmic junction

D Morula

IV. Structure formed by the continuous division of 8 to 16 blastomeres

E Blastocysts

84. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts marked as A, B, C, and D respectively.

Embedding of blastocysts in the endometrium

(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – V; E – III

C D

(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V (c) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II (d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV 82. Select the correct match of terms given in column-I with their definition given in column -II. Column-I

Column-II

(Terms)

(Definition)

Parturition

Duration between pregnan cy (of about 9 month) and birth

Ovulation

II. Attachment of zygote to the endometrium

Gestation

III. Childbirth

Implantation

IV. Stoppage of menstruation

Conception

V. Release of egg from Graafian follicle VI. Process of milk secretion VII.Formation of zygote by fusion of the egg and sperm

(a) A – I; B – II; C – VII; D – V; E – III (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V (c) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – VI (d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV, E – II

A (a) Ureter (b) Ureter

B Seminal vesicle Prostate

(c) Vas Seminal deferens vesicle (d) Vas Seminal deferens vesicle 85. Identify the figure (A) below and match with location (C).

C Prostate

D Bulbourethral gland Seminal Bulbourethral vesicle gland Prostate Bulbourethral gland Bulbourethral Prostate gland whose sectional view is given its characteristics (B) and its

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(a)

Graafian follicle

Involved in the formation of ovum

Ovary

(b)

Involved in Seminiferous the formation tubule of sperm

Testis

Ovum (c) surrounded by sperm (d)

86.

Mammary gland

Process of fertilization

Graafian follicle

Female Involved in milk reproductive secretion system

Which of the following options shows the correct labeling of A–F? (a) A®Myometrium, B®Isthmus, C®Endometrium, D® Perimetrium, E®Ampulla, F® Infundibulum (b) A®Infundibulum, B®Perimetrium, C®Endometrium, D®Myometrium, E®Ampulla, F®Isthmus (c) A®Endometrium, B®Myometrium, C®Perimetrium, D®Isthmus, E®Ampulla, F®Infundibulum (d) A®Perimetrium, B®Endometrium, C®Isthmus, D®Infundibulum, E®Ampulla, F®Myometrium 88. Refer the figure of mammary gland with few structures marked as A, B, C and D. Which structure contains clusters of milk secreting cells?

Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view of seminiferous tubule with their parts marked as A, B, C, and D. Select the option which shows the correct identification of the structure with its characteristics.

B C D

B C

(a) A: Spermatozoa, secretes testicular hormones that control spermatogenesis. (b) B: Spermatogonium, it is also called male germ cells which undergo meiotic division to from spermatozoa. (c) C: Interstitial cells, present in the interstitial spaces and store and transport the sperms from the testis to the outside through the urethra. (d) D: Sertoli cells, it maintains low temperature of the testis. 87. The given figure shows the diagrammatic sectional view of female reproductive system with few structures marked as A, B, C, D, E and F.

(a) A

(b) B.

(d) D

89. The figure given below shows the sectional view of seminiferous tubule.

A B C D

D E F A B C

Which marked structure (A to D) undergoes second meiotic division to produce four equal haploid cells (called spermatids)? (a) A (b) B (c) C (4) D

90.

The figure given below shows the structure of sperm. Identify the correct feature corresponding to the marked structure A, B, C and D. A B

C D

(a) A – Head: Its anterior portion is covered by a structure filled with enzymes that help in the fusion of male and female gametes. (b) B – Middle piece: It contains a haploid nucleus. (c) C – Neck: It possesses few ribosomes which produces energy for the process of fertilization. (d) D – Tail: It releases energy source for swimming of sperm. 91. The figure given below shows the sectional view of ovary. Select the option which gives correct identification of marked structure (A to D) and its feature. A

93.

(a) A: Tertiary; B: I; C: Fertilization; D: Primary oocyte. (b) A: Primary; B: II; C: Ovulation; D: Secondary oocyte. (c) A: Secondary; B: II; C: Fertilization; D: Primary oocyte. (d) A: Primary; B: I; C: Ovulation; D: Secondary oocyte. The figure given below shows the various events occurring during a menstrual cycle with few structures marked as A, B, C and D. Which of the following options shows the correct labeling?

B C B

(a) A: Primary follicle, it is also called gamete mother cell. (b) B: Corpus luteum, it cannot be formed and added after birth. (c) C: Graafian follicle, mature follicle which ruptures to release secondary oocyte. (d) D: Tertiary follicle, a large number of this follicle degenerates during the phase from birth to puberty. 92. The given figure shows the diagrammatic representation of oogenesis. Identify the option which shows the correct label marked as A, B, C and D.

(a) A®LH, B®Ovulation, C® Menstruation, D® Proliferative phase, E®Luteal phase (b) A®FSH, B®Implantation, C®Follicular phase, D®Menstruation phase, E®Luteal phase (c) A®Estrogen, B®Parturition, C®Luteal phase, D®Follicular phase, E®Follicular phase (d) A®Progesterone, B®Fertilization, C® Menstruation phase, D®Secretory phase, E® Follicular phase

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221

In the given figure the structure of ovum is surrounded by few sperms and some art are labelled as A, B, C and D.

96.

The given figure shows the human foetus within the uterus with few structures marked as A, B, C and D. B

Which of the following options shows the correct labelling? (a) A®Zona pellucida, B®Ovum , C®Cells of corona radiata, D®Perivitelline space (b) A®Perivitelline space, B®Antrum, C®Zona pellucida D®Ovum (c) A®Zona pellucida, B®Ootid, C®Cells of corona radiata D®Perivitelline space (d) A®Cells of corona radiata, B®Morula, C® Perivitelline space D®Zona pellucida 95. Which of the following human developmental stage becomes embedded in the uterine endometrium by a process called implantation and leads to pregnancy?

Which of the following options shows the correct labeling? (a) A®Umbilical cord with its veins, B® Chorionic villi, C®Antrum, D®Plug of mucus in cervix (b) A®Umbilical cord with its vessels, B®Fimbriae, C® Oocyte, D®Plug of mucus in vagina (c) A®Umbilical cord with its vessels, B®Placental villi C®Yolk sac, D®Plug of mucus in cervix (d) A®Umbilical cord with its veins, B®Placental villi C®Trophoblast, D®Plug of mucus in vagina 97.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Study the given figure and conclude the correct explaination from the options given below:

(a) All the sperm attaches with ovum. (b) Transport of sperm towards the ovum. (c) Ovum and surrounded sperms were going to take part in fertilization. (d) Sperm induces changes in the cells of corona radiata and blocks the entry of other additional sperms.

98.

Identify the structure marked as “X” and its function in the given figure of male reproductive system. A B C

(a) Rete testis: It helps seminiferous tubule to open into vas efferentia. (b) Bulbourethral gland: It secretes alkaline mucus for lubricating the reproductive tract.

(a) (c)

“X” - LH, A “X” - ACTH, C

(b) (d)

“X” - GH, B “X” - FSH, D

101. Study the given figure and identify the correct event occuring in this.

(c) Vas efferentia: They have contractile mechanism that aids in the emission of seminal fluid. (d) Seminal vesicle: It synthesizes and secrete testicular hormone. 99. The given figure shows the diagrammatic sectional view of female reproductive system with few structures marked as A, B, C, and D. Select the option which shows the correct identification of the structure with its characteristics. (a) Role of pituitary hormones levels. A

(b) Events occurring in uterine tissues.

C D

(d) Both (a) and (c). 102. The given figure shows the human foetus within the uterus. Identify the marked label (A to D) through which placenta is connected to the embryo. B

(a) A: Infundibulum, funnel shaped structure surrounded by finger like projection. (b) B: Ampulla, wider part of oviduct where fertilization occurs.

(c) C: Isthmus, it has a narrow lumen and joins with uterus. (d) D: Fimbriae, it collects ovum before ovulation. 100. “X” is a hormone which is secreted under the influence of GnRH. Identify “X” and the correct marked structures (A to D) from the figure given below on which “X” acts to stimulate secretion of some factors to help in spermiogenesis.

(a) A (c) C

(b) B (d) D

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103. The given figure represent a stage of embryonic development. Identify the stage with its feature. B A

(a) Blastocysts, ready to fertilize with sperm. (b) Secondary oocyte, implants on endometrial layer of uterus. (c) Morula, formed by mitotic division of zygote. (d) Ovary, produce female gamete and secretes hormones like estrogen etc 104. In the given figure, which two marked structure (A to D) is present in the lining of seminiferous tubule?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) D

107. The figure given below shows a flowchart on spermatogenesis. Identify the correct label marked as A, B, C and D.

B C

B D D

(a) A and D (b) B and D (c) C and D (d) A and B 105. The given figure shows the structure of sperm whose tail enables it to swim. Why the sperm does needs to swim?

(a) A: Ist meiotic division; B: 2nd meiotic division; C: Differentiation; D: 23. (b) A: 2nd meiotic division; B: Differentiation; C: Ist meiotic division; D: 46. (c) A: Differentiation; B: 2nd meiotic division; C: Ist meiotic division; D: 46. (d) A: Mitosis differentiation; B: Ist meiotic division; C: 2ndmeiotic division; D: 23.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (a) In order to get the ovum for fertilization. (b) It helps the foetus to come out of the uterus. (c) It helps blastocysts to attach in endometnum in the process of implantation. (d) It helps the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida and plasma membrane. 106. The given diagram shows a human female's reproductive system. Select the part (labelled as A, B, C & D) where semen is released into the female by the penis during copulation.

108. The feature of some structures of male reproductive system is given below. Identify the structure on the basis of the characteristics which surrounds the primary sex organ of male reproductive system. (a) Its enlarged end is called glans penis. (b) It travels through the penis and carry semen as well as urine. (c) It is responsible for maintaining the low temperature by about 2 – 2.5º C from normal body temperature to mature sperm. (d) Stores sperms prior to ejaculation.

109. Read the following statement and answer the question. “The urethra originates from a structure (called ‘X’) and extends through the male external genitalia (called ‘Y’ which helps in introducing semen into the vagina) to its external opening called urethral meatus.” Identify X and Y. (a) X - Urinary bladder ; Y - Penis (b) X - Vas efferentia ; Y - Penis (c) X - Ejaculatory duct ; Y - Ureter (d) X - Bulbourethral gland ; Y - Ureter 110. Which of the following is not a uterine function? (a) Waste removal for the developing embryo. (b) Nutritional support of the growing embryo. (c) Place of fusion of male and female gametes. (d) Mechanical protection of the developing embryo. 111. Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of mammary lobes reaches nipple through lactiferous duct(L), mammary duct (M), mammary tubule (T) and mammary ampulla (A) in the following order. (a) TMAL (b) MTLA (c) MTAL (d) ATML 112. A gonadotropin hormone, “X” acts on interstitial cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of “Y”. Identify X and Y from the given option. (a) X - LH ; Y - Androgen (b) X - FSH ; Y - Testosterone (c) X - TSH ; Y - Progesterone (d) X - GH ; Y - Estrogen 113. Secretion of which of the following are essential for maturation and motility of sperm? (a) Ureter, vas deferens, urinary bladder and prostate. (b) Seminal vesicle, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts and ureter. (c) Epididymis, seminal vesicle, vas deferens and prostate. (d) Epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas efferentia and seminal vesicle. 114. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of events leading to the formation of mature sperm? (a) Spermatogonium ® Secondary spermatocyte ® Primary spermatocyte ® Spermatids ® Sperms. (b) Spermatogonium ® Spermatids ® Secondary spermatocyte ® Primary spermatocyte ® Sperms. (c) Spermatids ® Primary spermatocyte ® Secondary spermatocyte ® Spermatogonium ® Sperms. (d) Spermatogonium ® Primary spermatocyte ® Secondary spermatocyte ® Spermatids ® Sperms. 115. How many ova are released during the middle of the menstrual cycle? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

Biology 116. Study the given statement and answer the question. “During ‘P’ phase of the menstrual cycle, if pregnancy doesn’t happen, the ‘Q’ withers and dies, usually around day 22 in a 28-day cycle. The drop in ‘R’ levels causes the lining of the uterus to fall away. This is known as ‘S’. Identify P, Q, R and S. (a) P ® Menstrual, Q ® Graafian follicle, R® Estrogen, S ® Menarche (b) P ® Luteal, Q ® Corpus luteum, R ® Progesterone S ® Menstruation (c) P ® Ovulatory, Q ® Endometrium, R ® Follicle stimulating hormone, S ® Menopause (d) P ® Follicular, Q ® Secon dary oocyte, R ® Luteinizing hormone S ®Menstruation 117. Which of the following hormones attains a peak level in the middle of menstrual cycle? (a) LH and estrogen (b) FSH and progesterone (c) FSH and LH (d) Estrogen and progesterone 118. Select the correct sequence of menstrual cycle. (a) Menstruation, Secretory, Follicular, New cycle. (b) Menstruation, Follicular, Luteal, New cycle. (c) Follicular, Menstruation, Luteal, New cycle. (d) Luteal, Menstruation, Follicular, New cycle. 119. Menstrual cycle is controlled by (a) LH and FSH only (b) estrogen, LH & FSH only (c) estrogen & progesterone only (d) LH, FSH, estrogen & progesterone. 120. Which of the following is the first change that occurs to the zygote after fertilization? (a) It divides to form a hollow ball of cells, called the blastocyst. (b) It begins to secrete the hormones. (c) It contacts the endometrial wall of the uterus and becomes buried inside it. (d) It initiates the formation of a placenta. 121. Fertilization can only occurs if (a) sperm reaches to the ampullary – isthmic junction before the ovum. (b) ovum reaches to the ampullary – isthmic junction before the sperm. (c) sperms are transported to the uterus and ovum to the fallopian tube simultaneously. (d) sperm and ovum are transported simultaneously to the ampullary – isthmic junction. 122. Which of the following does not occur in the time during and immediately following fertilization? (a) Fusion of the sperm and ovum nuclei. (b) Division of the oocyte cell by meiosis (c) Implantation of the ovum in the uterus. (d) Digestion of cell layers around the oocyte by sperm.

EBD_7209

224

Human Reproduction

225

123. The acrosome enables the sperm to (a) help in motility. (b) produce energy for activity. (c) penetrate vitelline membrane of ovum. (d) fertilize more than one ovum. 124. At the time of fertilization, chromosome number (a) is halved (b) remains haploid (c) becomes diploid (d) does not change 125. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by (a) placenta only. (b) fully developed foetus and placenta. (c) release of oxytocin from pituitary gland. (d) release of full developed corpus luteum. 126. Study the statement given below and answer the question. “Vigorous contraction of the ‘X’ at the end of the ‘Y’ causes expulsion of the foetus.” Identify X and Y. (a) X -Vagina ; Y - Fertilization (b) X - Uterus ; Y - Pregnancy (c) X - Placenta ; Y - Implantation (d) X - Embryo ; Y - Ovulation 127. Each spermatogonium which is diploid contains how many chromosomes? (a) 23 (b) 26 (c) 46 (d) 48 128. Which of the following group of cells involved in spermatogenesis represent haploid cells? (a) Spermatogonium (b) Primary spermatocyte (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Secondary spermatocyte 129. After the transformation of spermatids into sperm, their heads become embedded in a cell called “X” and are finally released from the “Y” by the process called “Z”. Identify X, Y and Z. X

(a) Spermatogonium Epididymis (b) Leydig (c) Sertoli (d) Spermatocyte

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132.

133.

Z Insemination

Vas deferens Parturition Seminiferous Spermiation tubule Seminiferous Spermiogenesis tubule

130. Select the option which shows the correct part of a sperm with its corresponding function. (a) Head: Stimulate Leydig cell to produce androgen hormone. (b) Neck: Essential for maturation and motility of sperm.

134.

(c) Middle piece: Produces energy from mitochondria for tail movement which facilitate sperm motility. (d) Tail: Help in fertilization with the help of enzyme present in acrosome. “A” cells start division and enter in “B” stage of meiotic division and get temporarily “C” at this stage, called “D”. Identify A, B, C and D. (a) A: Oogonia; B: Metaphase I; C: Arrested; D: Primary oocyte. (b) A: Oogonia; B: Anaphase I; C: Released; D: Secondary oocyte. (c) A: Oogonia; B: Prophase I; C: Arrested; D: Primary oocyte. (d) A: Oogonia; B: Telophase I; C: Released; D: Secondary oocyte. What happens during fertilization in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum? (a) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one (b) Only the closest sperm to the ovum penetrates the zona pellucida. (c) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida and plasma membrane. (d) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails. Study the following statements and answer the question. In a process called ‘A’, ‘B’ division starts as the zygote moves through the ‘C’ of the ‘D’ towards the ‘E’. Identify A, B, C, D and E. (a) A®Blastulation, B®Meiotic, C®Ampulla , D®Fallopian tube, E®Uterus (b) A®Parturition, B®Meiotic, C®Infundibulum, D®Uterus, E®Vagina (c) A®Implantation, B®Mitotic, C®Fimbriae, D® Ovary E®Cervix (d) A®Cleavage, B® Mitotic, C®Isthmus, D® Oviduct E®Uterus What will happen to pregnancy if placenta fails to function during the gestation? (a) The pregnancy would not continue. (b) The foetus would be born prematurely. (c) There would be no effect on the pregnancy. (d) The corpus luteum would continue produce hormone as an alternative source until birth.

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

According to which of the following organization "reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction"? (a) WHL (b) UNESCO (c) WHO (d) WWW Which one amongst the following is the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as social goal? (a) China (b) India (c) Japan (d) USA The family planning programmes in India were initiated in (a) 1951 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1981 RCH stands for (a) Routine Check-up of Health (b) Reproduction Cum Hygiene (c) Reversible Contraceptive Hazards (d) Reproductive and Child Health Care The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called as (a) leproscopy (b) amniocentesis (c) endoscopy (d) ultrasound ‘Saheli’ a new oral contraceptive developed by (a) All Indian Institute of Medical Science (b) Central Drug Research Institute (c) Health Care Pvt. Ltd. (d) Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. Ltd. What is the marriageable age for the females and males respectively in India? (a) 18, 18 (b) 18, 25 (c) 21, 18 (d) 18, 21 Which of the following is traditional method of contraception? (a) Implantation

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14.

Chapter

Reproductive Health

(b) Lactational amenorrhoea (c) Condoms (d) Sterilization Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS ? (a) Diaphragms (b) Spermicidal foams (c) Condoms (d) Lactational amenorrhoea The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are (a) disposable contraceptive devices (b) Reusable contraceptives (c) Non-medicated IUDs (d) Cu-releasing IUDs Which of the following groups of contraceptives are included under barrier methods? (a) Condom, Vaults, IUDs, Cervical caps (b) IUDs, Diaphragm, Abstinence, Injections (c) Condom, Diaphragm, Cervical caps, Vaults (d) Surgical methods, Oral contraceptives, Cervical caps, vaults IUDs stands for (a) Intra Uterine Devices (b) Internal Uterine Devices (c) Inseminated Uterine Devices (d) Injected Uterine Devices Which of the following ions plays an effective role in the activity of IUDs? (a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Copper (d) Ammonium Which of the following contraceptives is one of the most widely accepted method of contraception in India? (a) Sterilization (b) Intra Uterine device (c) Withdrawal or coitus interruption (d) Medical termination of pregnancy

Reproductive Health 15.

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25.

Progestasert and LNG-20 are (a) implants (b) copper releasing IUDs (c) non-medicated IUDs (d) hormone releasing IUDs The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is (a) progesterone (b) growth hormone (c) thyroxine (d) luteinizing hormone Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian duct is called (a) vasectomy (b) ductus arteriosus (c) archidectomy (d) tubectomy In which year, MTP was legalised in India? (a) 1971 (b) 1951 (c) 1981 (d) 1923 MTPs are considered relatively safe during the ______ weeks of pregnancy. (a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 20 STD/VD/UTI are (a) devices which are used to delay the pregnancy. (b) infections which are caused by food contamination. (c) diseases which are transmitted through sexual intercourse. (d) action plans and programmes to create awareness about various reproductive related health and problems. Hepatitis B is transmitted through (a) blood transfusion (b) intimate physical contact (c) Sexual contact (d) All of these World AIDS day is (a) December 21 (b) December 1 (c) November 1 (d) June 11 To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is transferred into female gamete directly. Such technique is called_________. (a) IUI (b) IUT (c) ICSI (d) GIFT The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube is called _________. (a) IVF and ET (b) ZIFT (c) GIFT (d) IUT The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques? (a) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) (b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI) (c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) (d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

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27.

Artificial insemination mean (a) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova. (b) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina. (c) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary. (d) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova. The technique called gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females (a) who cannot produce an ovum. (b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus. (c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms. (d) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilization.

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 28.

29.

30.

31.

Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) According to 2001 census our population growth rate was 1.7%. (b) Marriageable age for male and female is respectively 18 and 21 years. (c) An ideal contraceptive should be reversible. (d) The problem of infertility in India lies most often in female partner. Which of the following statement regarding natural methods of contraception is true? (a) They increase phagocytosis of sperms. (b) They employ barriers to prevent fertilization. (c) They are the natural ways of avoiding chances of fertilization. (d) They are surgical and terminal methods. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)? (a) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little. (b) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with the one who is already suffering from the same disease. (c) Haemophilia is one of the STD. (d) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD. Read the following statements and mark the correct option (i) MTP was legalized in 1971. (ii) Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called infertility. (iii) Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete formation. (iv) MTPs are relatively safe up to 14 weeks of pregnancy. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)

32.

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Choose the correct statements given below regarding contraception. (i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe. (ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years. (iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives. (iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) What is true for an ideal contraceptive ? (i) It should be user-friendly. (ii) It should be easily available. (iii) It should be ineffective and reversible with least side effects. (iv) It should be effective and reversible with least side effects. (v) It should interfere with the sexual act of the user. (a) All of these (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i),(ii), (iv) and (v) Which of the following statement are correct? (i) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation. (ii) The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is progesterone. (iii) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by preventing ovulation. (iv) Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused by herpes virus. (v) In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (v) (c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (iv), (v) and (vi) Choose the correct statements – (i) According to the WHO, reproductive health is total well-being in the physical, social, emotional, behavioural aspects of reproduction. (ii) According to the WHO, reproductive health is total well being in the physical, social and emotional aspects of reproduction. (iii) A reproductively healthy society has people with physically and functionally normal reproductive organs. (iv) Reproductively healthy societies have abnormal sexrelated emotional and behavioural interactions. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) only Reproductive health in society can be improved by (i) Introduction of sex education in schools. (ii) Increased medical assistance. (iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs. (iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child. (v) Ban on aminocentesis.

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(vi) Encouraging myths and misconceptions. (a) All of these (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (v) Identify the incorrect statements and select the correct option. (i) Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular problems. (ii) A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the real mother to nurse the embryo is called surrogate mother (iii) Numerous children have been produced by in vitro fertilization but with some abnormalities. (iv) Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the family and human species (v) Foetal sex determination test should not be banned. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (v) (d) None of these Which of the following are the reasons for population explosion? (i) Increased health facilities (ii) Rapid increase in MMR (iii) Rapid increase in IMR (iv) Rapid decrease in MMR (v) Decrease in number of people reaching reproducible age (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (v) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (v) To avoid transmission of STDs, we should (i) Avoid sex with multiple partners. (ii) Always have unprotected sex. (iii) Use condoms during coitus. (iv) Avoid sex with unknown partners. (v) Avoid sharing of needles. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) Identify the incorrect statement regarding ZIFT. (a) ZIFT is zygote intra fallopian transfer. (b) It is one of the techniques known as assisted reproductive technologies. (c) Through this process embryo is formed by injecting ovum into the sperm. (d) Zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres is collected and transferred into the fallopian tube. Which of the following statements regarding IUDs is correct? (a) It suppresses the process of gametogenesis. (b) They once inserted need not be replaced. (c) They are generally inserted by the user itself. (d) It increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

EBD_7209

Biology

228

Reproductive Health 42.

43.

44.

Select the correct statements regarding diaphragm as contraceptive device from the given options. (i) They act as physical barrier for sperm entry. (ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region during coitus. (iii) They are introduced into the uterus to prevent implantation. (iv) They act as spermicidal agents to increase their contraceptive effectiveness (a) (i), (ii) only (b) (i), (iv) only (c) (ii), (iii) only (d) (iii), (iv) only Identify the correct function(s) of pills (i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation. (ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms. (iii) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina. (iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) Select the correct statements regarding MTP from the given options. (i) Always surgical. (ii) Used as a contraceptive method. (iii) Generally suggested during first trimester. (a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) only (c) (i), (iii) only (d) All of these.

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49.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 50.

51.

Assertion : Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device in human females. Reason: Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from vagina upwards into Fallopian tubes.

52.

Given below are four methods (A-D) of contraceptive in column-I and their modes of action in achieving contraception in column-II. Match the columns and select the correct option : Column -1 Column -II (Method) (Mode of Action) A. The contraceptive I. Prevents sperms pill reaching cervix B. Condom II. Prevents implantation C. Vasectomy III. Prevents ovulation D. Copper T IV. Semen contains no sperms (a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II Column I contains different types of IUD’s with their examples given in column II. Match the column and choose the correct option Column-I Column-II A. Non-medicated IUDs I. Lippes loop B. Hormone releasing IUDs II. Multiload 375 C. Copper releasing IUDs III. CuT IV. Cu7 V. LNG - 20 VI. Progestasert (a) A – I; B – II; VI; C – III; IV; V (b) A – I; B – V; VI; C – II; III; IV (c) A – II; B – III; VI; C – I; V; IV (d) A – II; B – I; VI; C – III; IV; V Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option Column-I Column-II (A) Hepatitis B I. Vitamin E (B) Saheli II. 7’April, 1948 (C) Normal functioning III. CDRI, Lucknow of reproductive organs (D) World Health IV. Detection of antibody/ organisation antigen (E) ELISA technique V. Hepatitis B virus (a) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II; E – IV (b) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV (c) A – V; B – III; C – IV; D – II; E – I (d) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – III; E – I

53.

Select the correct match of the techniques given in column I with its feature given in column II.

Identify the figure given below.

Column I A. ICSI I B. IUI C. IUT D. GIFT E. ZIFT

54.

Column II Artificially introduction of semen into the vagina or uterus. II Transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube where fertilization occur III Formation of embryo by directly injecting sperm into the ovum

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IV Transfer of the zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomeres) into a fallopian tube. V Transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus

(a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III; E – IV (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (c) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I (d) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV Select the correct match from the given option. (a) Non Medicated IUDs - Multiload 375 (b) Saheli - Contains a non - steroidal preparation (c) Lactational amenorrhea - Presence of menstruation (d) Diaphragms, cervical caps, vaults - Cover the cervix after the coitus is done

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 55.

The process done in the given figure 59.

56.

(a) Male condom (b) Female condom (c) Norplant (d) Copper T Which of the following option is correct regarding the diagram given below?

(a) Prevents egg from reachin g th e uterus for implantation. (b) Avoid insemination (c) Inhibits ovulation (d) Increases contraceptive efficiency The given diagram shows the uterine tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S).

(a) It is a device made of rubber and inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. (b) It is a device made of thin rubber/ latex sheath and are used to cover penis in the male. (c) This device is inserted by doctors in the uterus through vagina and increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus. (d) It is a set of 6-small plastic capsules (called implant) which are placed under the skin of a women’s upper arm and it prevent pregnancy. In the given figure which marked number (1, 2, 3, 4) is tied and cut to block fertilization

2 3 4

60.

In which two women is fertilization impossible at present ? (a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) R and S (d) S and P

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Refer the given figure below and answer the question. Which feature is correctly associated with the given figure?

EBD_7209

Biology

230

Reproductive Health

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(a) It is a male condom which is used to cover the penis just before the coitus to prevent the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract. (b) It is a female condom which is used to cover the cervix and vagina just before the coitus. (c) It is a condom which is used to cover penis in male and vagina and cervix in female. (d) It is one type of IUDs which makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms. The given figure shows one of the elements releasing intrauterine device. Select the option which shows the correct identification of the device and its feature.

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(a) CuT; suppress sperm motility and its fertilizing capacity. (b) Cu7; make uterus unsuitable for the attachment of blastocysts. (c) Lippes loop; protect the users from contracting AIDS and STDs. (d) LNG - 20; acts as spermicidal means and decrease the contraceptive efficiency.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 62.

63.

On which days of the menstrual cycle is ovulation expected? (a) 10th - 30th (b) 1st - 10th (c) 10th - 17th (d) 18th - 25th Refer the following statement and answer the question. "Inability of an individual to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts in ejaculates leads to "A". It could be corrected by "B". In "B" the "C" is collected and artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the "D" (IUI - intra-uterine insemination) of the female." Identify A to D. A

a. STD

Embryo transfer

Urine Fallopian tube

b. MTP

GIFT

Ovum Uterus

c. Infertility Artificial technique Semen Uterus d. Infertility ZIFT

Sperm Fallopian tube

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Which of the following disease is completely curable if detected early and treated properly? (a) Syphilis (b) Hepatitis B (c) Genital herpes (d) HIV infection Present increase in India’s population has not been due to decline in (a) decrease in infant mortality rate (b) decrease number of people reaching reproductive age (c) decline in death rate (d) decline in maternal mortality rate The copper ions of IUDs (a) suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms. (b) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation. (c) increase phagocytosis of sperms. (d) make cervix hostile to sperms. Progestogens in the contraceptive pill (a) prevents ovulation (b) inhibits estrogen (c) checks attachment of zygote endometrium (d) All of the above Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest? (a) The rhythm method (b) The use of physical barriers (c) Temination of unwanted pregnancy (d) Sterilization techniques The success of birth control programmes in controlling population growth is dependent on (a) use of contraceptives (b) tubectomy (c) vasectomy (d) acceptability of the above by the people Assisted reproductive technologies (ART) (a) include social awareness programmes to educate people about reproductive health and diseases. (b) include research organization working on to produce new and more effective contraceptives for birth control. (c) include a number of special techniques which assist infertile couples to have children. (d) both (b) and (c) Which of the following STDs are not completely curable? (a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis (b) Chancroid, syphilis, genital warts (c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the (a) suppression of gonadotropins. (b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins. (c) supression of gametic transport. (d) supression of fertilization.

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The best way to control population of a country is (a) to educate people. (b) to have better houses. (c) to kill people on a large scale. (d) to practice and implement family planning. Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of over population? (a) It increase the poverty of a country. (b) It leads to shortage of food supply. (c) It results in unemployment. (d) All of the above. An individual undergoes sterilization process in which a small incision was done on “X” and a part of vas deferens is removed or tied up. Identify “X” and the intervention of this surgical process. (a) “X” - Fallopian tube; Prevent ovulation and implantation. (b) “X” - Testes; Prevent conception by blocking sperm entry. (c) “X” - Epididymis; Inhibit maturation of sperm and its transport. (d) “X” - Scrotum; Gamete transport is blocked and thereby prevents conception. It is a disease which mainly affects mucous membrane of urinogenital tract, In males burning feeling on passing urine after a yellow discharge occurs that is accompanied by fever headache and feeling of illness its name is (a) Phenylketonuria (b) Gonorrhoea (c) AIDS (d) None of these Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within (a) 72 hours of coitus (b) 72 hours of ovulation (c) 72 hours of menstruation (d) 72 hours of implantation Identify the type of most popular contraceptive device whose features are given below. (i) They do not interfere the act of coitus. (ii) These are effective barriers for insemination. (iii) These help in reducing the risk of sexually transmitted diseases. (a) IUD (b) Condom (c) Injectable (d) Oral contraceptives Study the given reasons on the basis of which pregnancy can be terminated. Identify the correct reasons. (i) To get rid of unwanted pregnancies. (ii) To prevent the fatality or harmfulness to the mother or to foetus or both due to the continuation of pregnancy. (iii) Termination of pregnancy is safe in each and every case. (iv) If the foetus is male. (v) It plays an important role in decreasing the population.

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(a) (i), (ii), only (b) (ii), (iii) only (c) (iii), (iv), (v) only (d) All of these Given below are some examples of sexually transmitted diseases. Identify the one or more which specifically affect the sex organs. (i) AIDS ((i) Syphilis (iii) Gonorrhea (iv) Genital warts (a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) only (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) only (d) All of these. Which of the following principle will not help people to become free from the infection of sexually transmitted diseases? (i) Always use condoms in the course of coitus. (ii) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners (iii) Refer any one in case of doubt for early detection and diagnose of disease and get complete treatment. (iv) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease. (v) Involvement in sex with known partners/single partners (a) (i), (iv) only (b) (i), (ii), (iii) only (c) (i), (ii), (iv) only (d) All of these. Which of the following infections can also be transmitted by sharing of injection needles, surgical instruments, etc., with infected persons, transfusion of blood, or from an infected mother to the foetus too? (a) Hepatitis B and HIV (b) Genital herpes and HIV (c) Syphilis and Hepatitis B (d) Chlamydiasis and Trichomoniasis Identify the correct reasons of infertility. (i) Drugs (ii) Diseases (iii) Congenital (iv) Use of Contraceptives (v) Immunological or psychological (vi) Assisted reproductive technology (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (iii), (iv), (vi) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (d) All of these Which of the following assisted reproductive technology has been used for the longest time period? (a) In vitro fertilization (b) Artificial insemination (c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (d) Gamete intra fallopian transfer Amniocentesis is a technique used to (a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo (b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo (c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo (d) All of these

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Mendel’s last law is (a) segregation (b) dominance (c) independent assortment (d) polygenic inheritance The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called (a) multiple alleles (b) alleles (c) alloloci (d) paramorphs The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions? (a) TT × tt (b) Tt × tt (c) TT × Tt (d) tt × tt A pure tall pea was crossed with a pure dwarf pea. All the plants of F1 were found to be tall. This is due to (a) law of dominance. (b) disappearan ce of factor for dwar fness in F 1 generation. (c) segregation of factors. (d) co-ordination. The F 2 generation of a cross produced identical phenotypic and genotypic ratio. It is not an expected Mendelian result, and can be attributed to (a) independent assortment (b) linkage (c) incomplete dominance (d) none of the above The monohybrid genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in F2 generation indicates (a) segregation (b) independent assortment (c) dominance (d) incomplete dominance

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

Chapter

Principles of Inheritance & Variation

Mendel selected pea as material for his experiments because (a) it is an annual plant with comparatively short life cycle. (b) the flowers are self-pollinated. (c) the number of seeds produced is quite large. (d) all of the above. Which of the following crosses would produce a genotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 in F2 ? (a) AB × AB (b) Ab × ab (c) Ab × Ab (d) ab × ab Punnett square is used to know the (a) outcome of a cross (b) probable result of a cross (c) types of gametes (d) result of meiosis The crossing of F1 to homozygous recessive parent is called (a) back cross (b) test cross (c) F1 cross (d) all of these The test cross is used to determine the (a) genotype of the plant (b) phenotype of the plant (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above ABO blood group system is due to (a) multifactor inheritance (b) incomplete dominance (c) multiple allelism (d) epistasis In humans, the dominance relationship between the A and B alleles of the ABO blood group gene is an example of (a) complete dominance (b) incomplete dominance (c) codominance (d) epistasis

15.

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The distance between the genes is measured by (a) angstrom (b) map unit (c) Dobson unit (d) millimetre Linkage reduces the frequency of (a) hybrids. (b) all parental types. (c) homozygous recessive parents. (d) heterozygous recessive parents. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows (a) a direct relationship (b) an inverse relationship (c) a parallel relationship (d) no relationship HbA and HbS alleles of normal and sickle celled RBC are (a) dominant-recessive alleles. (b) polygenic alleles. (c) codominant alleles. (d) multiple alleles. Sex is determined in human beings (a) by ovum. (b) at time of fertilization. (c) 40 days after fertilization. (d) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in foetus. The ‘X’ body of Henking was observed in (a) all sperms during spermatogenesis. (b) all eggs during oogenesis. (c) half of the sperms during spermatogenesis. (d) half of the eggs during oogenesis. In a dihybrid cross, F2 phenotypic ratio is 13 : 3. It is case of (a) complementary genes (b) epistatic genes (c) multigenic inheritance (d) incomplete dominance In sickle-cell anaemia, shape of RBCs under oxygen tension becomes (a) biconcave disc like (b) elongated and curved (c) circular (d) spherical Sickle cell anaemia is (a) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin. (b) caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA. (c ) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus. (d) an autosomal linked dominant trait. Sickel-cell anaemia is an example of (a) sex-linked inheritance. (b) deficiency disease. (c) autosomal heritable disease. (d) infectious disease.

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It is well known that Queen Victoria of England was a carrier for haemophilia. Since this is an X-linked disease, it can be predicted that (a) all of her sons would have had disease. (b) all her daugthers would have been carriers. (c) her father must definitely have had haemophilia. (d) haemophilia would have occurred in more of her male than her female descendents. The number of phenotypes in ABO blood groups is (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 Extra chromosome ‘X’ is present in which one of the following cases? (a) Down syndrome (b) Klinefelter syndrome (c) Turner syndrome (d) Bleeder’s disease The person with Turner’s syndrome has (a) 45 autosomes and X sex chromosome (b) 44 autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes (c) 45 autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes (d) 44 autosomes and X sex chromosome Mental retardation in man associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to (a) increase in size of X-chromosome. (b) increase in size of Y-chromosome. (c) increase in number of Y-chromosome. (d) increase in number of X-chromosome. Three children in a family have blood types O, AB and B respectively. What are the genotypes of their parents? (a) IA i and IBi (b) IAIB and i i (c) IBIB and IAIA (d) IAIA and IBi A character which is expressed in a hybrid is called (a) dominant (b) recessive (c) co-dominant (d) epistatic Mutations can be induced with (a) infrared radiations (b) I AA (c) ethylene (d) gamma radiations Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents? (a) Law of dominance (b) Inheritance of one gene (c) Co-dominance (d) Incomplete dominance In XO type of sex determination (a) females produce two different types of gametes. (b) males produce two different types of gametes. (c) females produce gametes with Y chromosomes. (d) males produce single type of gametes.

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235

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of dominance? (a) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor. (b) Out of one pair of factors’ one is dominant and the other is recessive. (c) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation. (d) Factors occur in pairs. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross. (a) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations. (b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations. (c) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones. (d) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example? (a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds. (b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper. (c) XO condition in human as found in Turner’s syndrome, determines female sex. (d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement regarding mutations? (a) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frameshift mutations. (b) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations. (c) UV and gamma rays are mutagens. (d) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation. Which of the following statement is not correct of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency? (a) The genes are tightly linked. (b) The genes show independent assortment. (c) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis. (d) The genes may be on different chromosomes. Refer the given statements and select the correct option. (i) Percentage of homozygous dominant individuals obtained by selfing Aa individuals is 25%. (ii) Types of genetically different gametes produced by genotype AABbcc are 2.

41.

42.

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44.

(iii) Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid F2 progeny in case Mirabilis jalapa is 3 : 1. (a) All the statements are true. (b) Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but statement (iii) is false. (c) Statements (i) and (iii) are true, but statement (ii) is false. (d) Statements (ii) and (iii) are true, but statement (i) is false. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW-ZZ type of sex determination? (a) It occcurs in birds and some reptiles (b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic (c) 1 : 1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings (d) All of these Identify the incorrect statement. (a) In male grasshoppers, 50% of the sperms have no sex chromosome. (b) Usually female birds produce two types of gametes based on sex chromosomes. (c) The human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other. (d) In domesticated fowls, the sex of the progeny depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes the egg. Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. (ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy. (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant gene disorder. (iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder. (v) Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder. (a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) Choose the correct statements given below regarding Mendelian inheritance. (i) Mendel’s experiments had small sample size which gave greater credibility to the data. (ii) A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations. (iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates over the other. (iv) A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its heterozygous condition. (v) Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous sites on homologous. (a) (ii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (v) (c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) (i) and (v)

45.

46.

Which of the following statements are the correct? (i) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in aneuploidy. (ii) Chromosomal disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in a single gene. (iii) Thalasemia and cystic fibrosis are Mendelian disorders. (iv) Sickle cell anemia is an X-linked trait. (v) Haemophilia is an autosome linked recessive disease. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) Which of the following statements are correct ? (i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of pre-Mendelian concept of blending inheritance. (ii) Test cross is a special type of back cross. (iii) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells. (iv) Thalassaemia is a Mendelian disorder. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) only

52.

Reason : Effect of environment, other alleles did not explained by the Mendel. Assertion : Test cross is used to determine an unknown genotype within one breeding generation. Reason : Test cross is a cross between F1 hybrid and dominant parent.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 53.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. ABO blood groups I. Dihybrid cross B. Law of segregation II. Monohybrid cross C. Law of Independent III. Base pairs substitution assortment D. Gene mutation IV. Multiple allelism (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I 54. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Turner syndrome I. Trisomy B. Linkage II. AA + XO C. Y-chromosome III. Morgan D. Down's syndrome IV. Testis determining factor (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I 55. Match column-I with column-II and find the correct answer. Column -I Column -II A. Monoploidy I. 2n – 1 B. Monosomy II. 2n + 1 C. Nullisomy III. 2n + 2 D. Trisomy IV. 2n – 2 E. Tetrasomy V. n VI. 3n (a) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – III (b) A – V, B – II, C – IV, D – I, E – III (c) A – VI, B – V, C – III, D – IV, E – II (d) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – VI, E – V

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Principles of Inheritance & Variation 56.

Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column -I Column -II A. Incomplete dominance I. Drosophila B. Mendelian disorder II. Antirrhinum sp. C. Transforming principle III. Griffith D. Dihybrid cross IV. Haemophilia (a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (b) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I 57. Match column-I with their name given in column-II and choose the correct answer. Column -I Column -II A. Alfred Sturtevant I. Mapped position of genes B. Henking II. X-body C. Meischer III. Nuclein D. Morgan IV. Dihybrid crosses in Drosophila (a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 58. Match the symbols used in human pedigree analysis (given in column-I) with their name (given in column-II) and choose the correct option. Column -I Column -II A.

Consanguineous mating

II.

Normal female

III. Mating

IV.

Affected female

Parents with male child

affected with disease VI. Sex unspecified (a) (b) (c) (d)

A – III, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – IV A – II, B – I, C – VI, D – III, E – IV A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – V, E – II A – III, B – I, C – VI, D – V, E – IV

237

59.

60.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II A. Autosomal I. Down’s syndrome recessive trait B. Sex-linked II. Phenylketonuria recessive trait C. Metabolic error III. Haemophilia linked to autosomal recessive D. Additional 21st IV. Sickle cell anaemia chromosome (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II Match column-I (Definition) with column-II (Terms) and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (Definition) (Terms) A. A single trait I. Pleiotropy controlled by three or more than three alleles B. A single trait II. Multiple alleles controlled by three or more than three genes C. A single gene III. Polygenic inheritance exhibits multiple phenotypic expression (a) A – II; B – III; C – I (b) A – III; B – II; C – I (c) A – I; B – II; C – III (d) A – II; B – I; C – III

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 61.

Study the pedigree chart given below and choose its correct representation.

(a) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait. (b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible. (c) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia. (d) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria.

62.

Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct? (a)

= mating between relatives

(b)

= unaffected male

(c)

= unaffected female

65.

The experiment shown in the given figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of linkage and recombination. If in cross I, genes are tightly linked and in cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will be the percentage of recombinants produced in cross I and cross II respectively? Cross I Parents White eyes

Yellow body

(d)

Wild type

= male affected F1 generation

63.

Wild type

The given figure represents the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans.

Yellow body

White eyes

Cross II

FEMALE (Mother)

MALE (Father)

Daughter

Son

Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern? (a) Thalassemia (b) Haemophilia (c) Phenylketonuria (d) Sickle cell anaemia 64. The given figure is a highly simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype. The gene a and b could be of Gene a

White body

Wild type

Miniature wings

Wild type

White body

Miniature wings

(a) 98.7% and 62.8% (b) 1.3% and 37.2% (c) 37.2 and 1.3% (d) 62.8% and 98.7% 66. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

Gene b

(a) (b) (c) (d)

colour blindness and body height. attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group. haemophilia and red-green colour blindness. phenylketonuria and haemophilia.

(a) The female parent is heterozygous. (b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character. (c) The trait under study could not be colourblindness. (d) The male parent is homozygous dominant.

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Principles of Inheritance & Variation 67.

Identify the type of inheritance shown in the diagram.

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(a) dominant X-linked (b) recessive X-linked (c) dominant Y-linked (d) recessive Y-linked 68. Following is a pedigree for albinism (aa). What is the probability of II -1 to be a heterozygous ?

74.

I II 1 III

(a)

1 3

(b)

1 2

(c)

2 3

(d)

1 4

75.

76.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 69.

70.

71.

In Mendelian dihybrid cross when heterozygous round yellow are self crossed, round green offsprings are represented by genotype (a) RrYy, RrYY, RRYy (b) RrYY, RRyy, rryy (b) rrYy, rrYY (c) RrYY, Rryy, RRyy A mutation is a (a) sudden temporary change in an organism’s genetic material. (b) change in phenotype followed by a change in genotype. (c) change in hereditary material directed by a changing environment. (d) change in genotype which may result in a new expression of a characteristic. Harmful mutations does not get eliminated from gene pool because (a) they are recessive and carried by homozygous individuals. (b) they are recessive and carried by heterozygous individuals. (c) they are formed repeatedly. (d) they show genetic drift.

77.

What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross between two heterozygous tall pea plants? (a) Zero (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 100% In a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic while half the daughters are carriers. The gene responsible for it is located on (a) X-chromosome of father. (b) Y-chromosome of father. (c) one X-chromosome of mother. (d) both the X-chromosomes of mother. What can be the blood group of offfspring when both parents have AB blood group? (a) AB only (b) A, B and AB (c) A, B, AB and O (d) A and B only According to the law of independent assortment in a dihybrid cross (a) there are four genotypes in F2. (b) F2 contains 16 phenotypes. (c) there is a single individual which is homozygous recessive for both the characters. (d) it is not possible to forecast the different phenotypes. In case of codominance, the offsprings of F1 generation have the trait (a) of either of two parents. (b) of both the parents. (c) of none of the parents. (d) in between the traits of two parents. Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in the above given cross? (a) X-linked dominant trait (b) X-linked recessive trait (c) Autosomal recessive trait (d) Autosomal dominant trait XY (Normal man) c

XX XX (Carrier (Normal daughter) daughter)

78.

XX (Carrier woman) XY (Normal son)

XY (Normal son)

Regarding ABO blood group, if one parent is homozygous and other is heterozygous, what are the chances that their child will have ‘O’ blood group? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) Zero

79.

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86.

Which one of the following correctly represents the nature of blood in the ABO system of blood groups pertaining to the presence of antigens and antibodies? (a) Blood group A –Antibody A and antigen B (b) Blood group B–Antigen B and antibody A (c) Blood group AB–Both antibodies A and B (d) Blood group O–No antigens and no antibodies In Down’s syndrome, karyotyping has shown that the disorder is associated with trisomy of chromosome number 21 usually due to (a) non-disjunction during egg formation. (b) non-disjunction during sperm cell formation. (c) addition of extrachromosome during cleavage of zygote. (d) non-disjunction during egg cells production and sperm production. In Drosophila, XXY represents a female but in human it is an abnormal male. It shows that (a) Y-chromosome is essential for male sex in human. (b) Y-chromosome is essential for female sex determination in Drosophila. (c) Y-chromosome is not essential for male sex determination in human. (d) All of the above A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism (a recessive character) is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently germinated. How many seedings would have the parental genotype? (a) 1250 (b) 600 (c) 300 (d) 2250 Multiple alleles are present (a) at different loci in the same chromosome. (b) in different chromosomes. (c) at the same locus in one type of chromosomes. (d) None of the above Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What precentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father? (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 100% (d) 75% A monohybrid cross is the one in which (a) only a single plant is involved for the experiment. (b) a single pair of contrasting characters is considered for the genetic results. (c) a hybrid is crossed to a homozygous. (d) None of the above The law of segregation of characters postulated by Mendel can be related to (a) the presence of two genes for each character in a somatic cell.

87.

88.

89.

90.

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93.

(b) a gamete receiving only one of the two homologous chromosomes during meiosis. (c) presence of both genes on the same chromosome. (d) None of the above In genetics the term test cross means (a) the crossing of F1 individual with homozygous recessive. (b) crossing an F1 individual with either of the two parents. (c) crossing F1 individual with another F1 individual. (d) crossing F1 individual with that of F2. What proportion of the offsprings obtaied from cross AABBCC × AaBbCc will be completely heterozygous for all genes segregated indpendently? (a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/16 How would you test a pea plant whether it is a pure or hybrid for tallness ? (a) Cross the pea plant with another tall pea plant of unknown genotype. (b) Cross the pea plant with a pure tall pea plant. (c) Cross the pea plant with a homozygous dwarf pea. (d) Cross the pea plant with any pea plant. The law of segregation of characters is also called the law of purity of gametes because (a) gametes have only one of the two alleles for each character. (b) gametes cannot be contaminated. (c) both (a) and (b) (d) gametes are very different type of cells. Mendel was successful in formulating the laws of inheritance whereas his predecessors were not because (a) he studied one clear-cut character at a time. (b) the characters studied by him were present on separate chromosomes. (c) of the right choice of material. (d) he kept accurate records of his experiments. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by (a) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes. (b) whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically. (c) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the sets of autosomes. (d) X and Y-chromosomes. The F2 generation offspring in a plant showing incomplete dominance, exhibit (a) variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios. (b) a genotypic ratio of 1 : 1. (c) a phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1. (d) similar phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1 : 2 : 1.

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Principles of Inheritance & Variation 94.

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98.

In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the cross RR YY × rryy ? (a) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons. (b) Only wrinkled seeds with both yellow cotyledons. (c) Only round seeds with yellow cotyledons. (d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons. A man has enlarged breasts, sparse hairs on the body and sex chromosomal formula XXY. He then suffers from (a) Down’s syndrome (b) Edward’s syndrome (c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Klinefelter’s syndrome A gene is said to be dominant if (a) it expresses its effect only in homozygous state. (b) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition. (c) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition. (d) it never expresses its effect in any conditions. Two organisms that are true-breeding for a certain genetic characteristic are mated and their offspring were analysed. Which of the following statements about this situation is correct? (a) Both parents are homozygotes. (b) The offspring are either all homozygotes or all heterozygotes. (c) The offspring represent the F1 generation and the gametes produced by the offspring will carry only one allele for this gene. (d) All of the above Why is the allele for wrinkled seed shape in garden peas considered recessive ? (a) It “recedes” in the F2 generation when homozygous parents are crossed. (b) The trait associated with the allele is not expressed in heterozygotes. (c) Individuals with the allele have lower fitness than that of individuals with the dominant allele. (d) The allele is less common than the dominant allele. (The wrinkled allele is a rare mutant).

241

99.

Sex determination in grasshoppers, humans, and Drosophila is similar because (a) females are hemizygous. (b) males have one X-chromosome and females have two X-chromosomes. (c) all males always have one Y-chromosome in all three species. (d) the ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the same in all three organisms. 100. Mendel’s rules do not correctly predict patterns of inheritance for tightly linked genes or the inheritance of alleles that show incomplete dominance or epistasis. Does this mean that his hypothesis are incorrect ? (a) Yes, because they are relevant to only a small number of organisms and traits. (b) Yes, because not all data support his hypothesis. (c) No, because he was not aware of meiosis or the chromosome theory of inheritance. (d) No, it just means that his hypothesis are limited to certain conditions. 101. Haemophilia is mentioned as a trait carried by the mother and passed to her sons. What is the pattern of inheritance for this trait ? (a) Haemophilia is an allele carried on one of the mother’s autosomal chromosomes. (b) Haemophilia is an allele carried on the Y-chromosome because more males have this genetic disorder than females. (c) Haemophilia is an allele carried on the X-chromosome and can be directly inherited by the son from the father or the mother. (d) Haemophilia is carried on the X-chromosome and can only be inherited by the son if the mother is a carrier.

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The two strands of DNA are held together by (a) peptide bonds (b) phosphodiester bonds (c) hydrogen bonds (d) S – S bonds Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by (a) X-ray crystallography (b) electron microscope (c) ultracentrifuge (d) light microscope Chargaff’s rules are applicable to (a) single stranded RNA. (b) single stranded DNA and RNA. (c) single stranded DNA. (d) double stranded DNA. One turn of DNA possesses (a) one base pair (b) two base pairs (c) five base pairs (d) ten base pairs Which of the following is correct for Watson and Crick’s model of DNA. It is duplex with (a) 10 base pairs and 3.4 Å distance for every turn. (b) 10 base pairs and 3.4 Å distance for each turn of spiral. (c) 20 base pairs and 34 Å for each turn. (d) None of the above Information flow or central dogma of modern biology is (a) RNA ® Proteins ® DNA (b) DNA ® RNA ® RNA (c) RNA ® DNA ® Proteins (d) DNA ® RNA ® Proteins Nucleosome is (a) intron interrupted DNA. (b) double helix DNA. (c) negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octomer. (d) satellite DNA. Genetic information is carried out by long chain molecule made up of

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Chapter

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

(a) amino acids (b) enzymes (c) nucleotides (d) histone proteins Histones are rich in (a) alanine and glycine (b) lysine and arginine (c) histidine and serine (d) cysteine and tyrosine In Meselson and Stahl’s experiments, heavy DNA was distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation in (a) CsOH gradient (b) 14NH4Cl (c) 15NH4Cl (d) CsCl gradient In Streptococcus pneumoniae (a) virulent form is smooth. (b) virulent form is rough. (c) nonvirulent form is capsulated. (d) all forms are rough. The scientists involved in discovery of DNA as chemical basis of heredity were (a) Hershey and Chase (b) Griffith and Avery (c) Avery, Mac Leod and McCarty (d) Watson and Crick During infection of E. coli cells by bacteriophage T2, (a) proteins are the only phage components that actually enter the infected cell. (b) both proteins and nucleic acids enter the cell. (c) only proteins from the infecting phage can also be detected in progeny phage. (d) only nucleic acids enter the cell. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it? (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 60% In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA indicating that (a) their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA before replication. (b) they cannot replicate. (c) there is no hereditary information. (d) RNA can act to transfer heredity.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 16.

17.

18.

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20.

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25.

A bacterium grown over medium having radioactive 35S incorporates radioactivity in (a) carbohydrates (b) proteins (c) DNA (d) RNA Leading strand during DNA replication is formed (a) continuously. (b) in short segments. (c) first. (d) ahead of replication. DNA replication is (a) conservative and discontinuous. (b) semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous. (c) semi-conservative and discontinuous. (d) conservative. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5' end of hn-RNA in a process of (a) tailing (b) splicing (c) capping (d) None of these Genetic code is (a) triplet, universal, ambiguous and degenerate. (b) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and nondegenerate. (c) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and degenerate. (d) triplet, universal, ambiguous and non-degenerate. Segments of mRNA removed during splicing are called ______. (a) introns (b) exons (c) promotor regions (d) integrator regions Frame shift mutation occurs when (a) base is deleted or added. (b) base is added. (c) base is deleted. (d) anticodons are not present. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is (a) GUA (b) GCA (c) CCA (d) AUG In eukaryotes, mRNA is synthesized with the aid of (a) RNA polymerase III. (b) RNA polmerase II. (c) RNA polymerase I. (d) reverse transcriptase. Lactose operon produces enzymes (a) b-galactosidase, permease and glycogen synthetase. (b) b-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase. (c) permease, glycogen synthetase and transacetylase. (d) b-galactosidase, permease and phosphoglucose isomerase.

243

26.

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28.

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34.

In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by (a) lactose (b) promotor gene (c) b-galactosidase (d) I-gene Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material? (a) Griffith (b) Watson (c) Boveri and Sutton (d) Hershey and Chase Lac operon is (a) arabinose operon (b) repressible operon (c) inducible operon (d) overlapping genes Satellite DNA (a) is classified in many categories such as microsatellites, minisatellites, etc. on the basis of base composition length of segments and number of repetitive units. (b) normally does not code for any protein. (c) shows polymorphism. (d) All of the above Which process is used for amplication or multiplication of DNA for finger printing ? (a) Polymerse chain reaction (PCR) (b) Nesslerisation (c) Southern blotting (d) Northern blotting Polymorphism in DNA sequence (a) is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome. (b) arises due to mutation. (c) is the basis of DNA finger printing. (d) All of the above VNTRs are (a) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats. (b) Very Narrow Tandem Repeats. (c) Variable Non-cistronic Transposon Repeats. (d) Valuable Non-cistronic Transposon Regions. SNP which is pronounced as “snips” stands for (a) Small Nuclear Protein (b) Single Nucleotide Particle (c) Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (d) Small Nicking Points Human Genome Project (HGP) is closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called as (a) biotechnology (b) bioinformatics (c) biogeography (d) bioscience

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 35.

Which of the following statement is correct about DNA polymerase ? (a) DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the 3' to 5' direction.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

(b) DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA in the 5' to 3' direction. (c) DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the 5' to 3' direction. (d) DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA in the 3' to 5' direction. Which of the following statement forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting? (a) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA. (b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments. (c) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva. (d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints. Select the correct statement regarding protein synthesis. (a) When the small subunit of the ribosome encounters an mRNA the process of translation begins. (b) Peptidase catalyses the formation of peptide bond. (c) UTRs are present between the start codon and stop codon. (d) At the end of translation, the release factor binds to the initiation codon. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) VNTR belong to a class of mini satellite DNA. (b) DNA sequences work on the principle developed by F. Sanger. (c) HGP was coordinated by US Department of Energy and the National Institute of Health. (d) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying similarities in repetitive DNA. Identify the incorrect statement about RNA. (a) RNA was the first genetic material to evolve in the living systems. (b) Apart from being a genetic material, it is also a catalyst. (c) DNA evolved from RNA with chemical modifications. (d) RNA being a catalyst is non-reactive and stable. Identify the incorrect statement. (a) In prokaryotes, the structural gene is polycistronic. (b) In eukaryotes, structural genes have interrupted coding sequences. (c) Eukaryotes have split gene arrangement. (d) Intervening sequences appear in mature RNA. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the observations drawn from the human genome project. (a) Repetitive sequences are stretches of RNA. (b) Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for protein. (c) SNPs help in tracing human history. (d) Repetitive sequences make up a very large portion of the human genome.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

Find out the incorrect statement. (a) Uracil is present in RNA at the place of thymine. (b) The complex of DNA and protein in chromosome is called chromatin. (c) Heterochromatin is the most highly condensed form of chromatin. (d) The process involved in the RNA formation on the DNA template is called replication. Select the two correct statements out of the four (i–iv) given below about lac operon. (i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it. (ii) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region. (iii) The z-gene codes for permease. (iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod. (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) How many of the given statements (i-iv) is/are correct? (i) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil. (ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation. (iii) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes. (iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One Which of the following statements are correct? (i) r-RNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins. (ii) t-RNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code. (iii) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription. (iv) A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) Which of the following statements about RNA polymerase are correct? (i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs. (ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs. (iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA. (iv) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNAs. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) Select the incorrect statement(s). (i) Six codons do not code for any amino acid. (ii) Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion.

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48.

(iii) Three codons function as stop codons. (iv) The initiation codon AUG codes for methionine. (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Read the following statements and choose the incorrect statements. (i) Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage. (ii) Phosphate group is linked to 5¢–OH of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage. (iii) Two nucleosides are linked through 3¢–5¢Nglycosidic linkage. (iv) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. (v) The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called euchromatin. (a) (i) only (b) (iv) only (c) (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

245

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 54.

55.

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 49. Assertion : Adenine cannot pair with cytosine Reason : Adenine and cytosine do not have a perfect match between hydrogen donor and hydrogen acceptor sites. Hence, they cannot pair. 50. Assertion : A single mRNA strand is capable of forming a number of different polypetide chains. Reason : The mRNA strand has terminator codon. 51. Assertion : The genetic code is degenerate. Reason : Most amino acids are coded by more than one codon. 52. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation takes place in the cytoplasm. Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis. 53. Assertion : DNA fingerprinting is very well known for its application in paternity testing is case of disputes. Reason : It employs the principle of polymorphism in DNA sequences as the polymorphisms are inheritable from parent to children.

56.

57.

Match the enzymes (given in column I) with their function (given in column II) and choose the correct combination from the given options. Column - I Column - II A. Helicase I. Joining of nucleotides B. Gyrase II. Opening of DNA C. Primase III. Unwinding of DNA D. DNA polymerase III IV. RNA priming (a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I Match the following and choose the correct combination from the given options. Column - I Column - II A. Splicing I. Lac operon B. Okazaki fragments II. Lagging strands C. Jacob and Monad III. Lactose D. Inducer IV. Removal of intron (a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct combination from the given options. Column - I Column - II A. Operator site I. Binding site for RNA polymerase B. Promoter site II. Binding site for repressor molecule C. Structural gene III. Codes for enzyme protein D. Regulator gene IV. Codes for repressor molecules (a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV Match the steps of protein by synthesis given in columnI with their feature given in column-II and select the correct combination from the given options. Column - I Column - II A. Termination I. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase B. Translation II. Okazaki fragments C. Transcription III. GTP dependent release factor D. DNA replication IV. RNA polymerase

58.

59.

(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct combination from the given options. Column - I Column - II A. Griffith I. Nucleoid B. Hershey and Chase II. Active chromatin C. Prokaryotic DNA III. Transduction D. Euchromatin IV. Transformation (a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV Match the codons given column I with their respective amino acids given in column II and choose the correct answer. Column -I (Codons)

Column -II (Amino acids)

61.

Match the scientists given in column-I with their work given in column-II and select the correct option. Column-I A. F. Meischer

Griffith

II. Nuclein

Hershey and

III. S. pneumoniae Chase

Watson and Crick

IV. Bacteriophages

Wilkins and

V. X-ray diffraction studies Franklin

DNA double helix

(a) A – II; B – III; C –IV; D – I; E – V (b) A – V; B – IV; C –III; D – I; E – II (c) A – I; B – III; C –IV; D – II; E – V (d) A – I; B – IV; C –III; D – II; E – V 62.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct combination from the given options. Column-I

Column-II

A UUU

I. Serine

B GGG

II. Methionine

A. Sigma factor

C UCU

III. Phenylalanine

Capping

II. Initiation

D CCC

IV. Glycine

Tailing

III. Termination

E AUG

V. Proline

Coding strand

IV. 5' end

5' – 3'

V. 3' end

(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II

60.

Column-II

(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II

(a) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II

(b) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – I

(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III

Match the enzymes given in column -I with its function given in column -II and select the correct option.

(d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – I

Column - I

Column - II

A b-galactosidase

B Permease

II. Peptide bond formation

C Ligase

Match column-I (Scientists) with column-II (Discoveries) and select the correct options. Column-I (Scientists)

Joining of DNA fragments

III. Hydrolysis of lactose

D Ribozyme

63.

IV. Increase permeability of -galactosidase

Column-II (Discoveries)

A. Alec Jeffreys

Lac operon

F. Sanger

II. Automated DNA sequences

Jacob and Monod III. DNA finger printing

Avery, Mc Leod and McCarty

IV. Transforming principle

(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I

(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV

(b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II

(d) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV

(d) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III

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247

(a) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine, C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Purine base

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 64.

The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & C. Identify A, B and C. B A

(b) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base, C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Pyrimidine (c) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine, C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Purine base

C 67. Core of histone molecules

(a) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

(d) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base, C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D– 5' end, E– Pyrimidine The diagram given below shows an important concept (proposed by C) in the genetic implication of DNA. The process occuring in that concept are marked as A and B. Identify A, B and C.

(b) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer (c) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone

DNA

(d) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer 65.

Name the types of synthesis A and B occurring in the replication fork of DNA as shown below. 5¢ 3¢ Template DNA (parental strands)

5' 3'

n Sy is es th

(a)

5¢ 3¢ 5¢ (a) A - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand); B - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand).

(b) A - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand); B - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand).

3' 5' 5' 3' 3' 5'

(b)

5' 3'

(c) A- Continuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand); B - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand). (d) A - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand); B - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand). 66.

mRNA

Protein

(a) A-Translation, B - Transcription, C-Erwin Chargaff (b) A-Transcription, B - Translation, C-Francis Crick (c) A-Translation, B - Extension, C-Rosalind Franklin (d) A-Transcription, B - Replication, C-James Watson Which one of the following correctly represents the manner of replication of DNA ?

3¢

sis he t n Sy

68.

3' 5'

(c)

The given figure represents the double stranded polynucteotide chain. Some parts are labelled as A, B, C, D and E. Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C, D & E.

5' 3' 5' 3'

(d)

3' 5' 5' 3' 3' 5'

69.

Given figure represent the DNA double helix model, proposed by Watson and Crick (1953). Select the option that shows correct measurement of A, B and C marked in the figure.

b-Galacto- Permease Tr anssidase acetylase (b) Repressor Inducer Permease b-Galacto-Transsidase acetylase (c) Inducer Repressor b-Galacto- Permease Tr anssidase acetylase (d) Inducer Repressor b-Galacto- Tr ansPermease sidase acetylase

72.

(a) Repressor Inducer

Transcription start site C

A 3¢ 5¢

A (a) Terminator

71.

B Promoter

a Transcription

mRNA A B

X Y

C (a) Initiation; A – DNA, B – RNA, C – Promoter (b) Termination; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase, C – Rho factor (c) Elongation; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase, C – Sigma factor (d) Elongation; A – DNA, B – DNA polymerase, C – RNA Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the given structure of tRNA and select the correct option.

5¢ 3¢

C D Template Coding strand strand (b) Promoter Terminator Coding emplate strand strand (c) Promoter Terminator Template Coding strand strand (d) Terminator Promoter Coding emplate strand strand The given figure shows lac operon model and its functioning. Select the option which correctly labels A, B, X, Y and Z marked in the figure and also identify the label (L) which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose, into galactose & glucose.

73.

OH – 3¢ A C C C

–

70.

5¢ 3¢ A

(a) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm (b) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm (c) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å (d) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å Given diagram represents the schematic structure of a transcription unit with some parts labelled as A, B, C and D. Select the option which shows its correct labelling.

The given figure represent one of the step in the process of transcription in bacteria. Identify the step and label A, B & C marked in the figure.

3¢ 5¢ C

5¢ – G

B Variable arm

A (a) Anticodon

B TyC loop

(b) AA binding TyC loop site (c) AA binding DHU loop site (d) AA binding DHU loop site

248248248248248248248 248

C D AA binding DHU loop site Anticodon DHU loop loop Anticodon TyC loop loop TyC loop Anticodon loop loop

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CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

In tertiary structure of DNA, what is a histone octamer ? (a) A complex consisting of eight positively charged histone proteins (two of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the packaging of DNA. (b) A complex consisting of eight negatively charged histone proteins (two of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the packaging of DNA. (c) A complex consisting of nine positively charged histone proteins (H1 and two of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the packaging DNA. (d) A complex consisting of nine negatively charged histone proteins (H1 and two of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the packaging of DNA. RNA polymerases used for the transcription of genes require a ______ template. (a) rRNA (b) DNA (c) RNA (d) mRNA The most abundant type of RNA in the cell is (a) r RNA (b) mRNA (c) t RNA (d) hn RNA In terms of DNA and RNA structure, what is a nucleotide ? (a) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base. (b) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule covalently bonded to a heterocyclic base. (c) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule bonded to phosphate group and a heterocyclic base. (d) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base bonded to phosphate group. DNA exists in a double-stranded form whereas RNA is mainly a single stranded molecule. What is the likely reason for DNA being double stranded ? (a) RNA strands cannot form base pairs. (b) Double stranded DNA is a more stable structure. (c) DNA cannot exist in the single stranded form. (d) It is easier to replicate double stranded DNA than single stranded RNA. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have (a) different density and do not resemble with their parent DNA. (b) different density but resemble with their parent DNA. (c) same density and resemble with their parent DNA. (d) same density but do not resemble with their parent DNA. Which step of translation does not consume high energy phosphate bond? (a) Translocation (b) Peptidyl transferase reaction (c) Amino acid activation (d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to A-site

249

81.

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88.

During elongation of polypeptide chain, sigma factor is (a) functionless. (b) retained for specific function. (c) released for re-use. (d) required during closing of chain. Determination of one amino acid by more than one codon is due to (a) redundancy of genetic code. (b) continuous nature of genetic code. (c) punctuation in genetic code. (d) universal nature of genetic code. Operon is a (a) sequence of three nitrogen bases determining a single amino acid. (b) set of closely placed genes regulating a metabolic pathway in prokaryotes. (c) segment of DNA specifying a polypeptide. (d) gene responsible for switching on and switching off other genes. Clover leaf secondary structure of tRNA has a loop for (a) three nucleotides of a codon. (b) three nucleotides of an anticodon. (c) no nucleotides. (d) both (a) and (b) DNA replication is semi-conservative as (a) only non-parent strand acts as template. (b) both strands of new molecule are synthesized de novo. (c) one of the strand in each new molecule is parental and the other is new. (d) daughter strands are dispersive. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence within a gene are called (a) frame shift mutations (b) base pair substitutions (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these Which one of the following pair is a purine pair? (a) Uracil, Guanine (b) Cytosine, Thymine (c) Adenine, Guanine (d) Adenine, Thymine Which one of the following group of codons is called as degenerate codons? (a) UAA, UAG and UGA (b) GUA, GUG, GCA, GCG and GAA (c) UUC, UUG, CCU, CAA and CUG (d) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

The two strands of a double helix model of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds between (a) sugar and phosphate groups. (b) sugar and nitrogenous bases. (c) phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases. (d) nitrogenous bases. Transcription (a) starts at initiator region and ends at stop region. (b) starts at operator region and ends at telomeric end. (c) starts at promoter region and ends at terminator region. (d) starts at CAAT box and ends at TATA box. Consider the process that a cell uses to replicate its doublestrand DNA to make copies for daughter cells. Which statement describes the DNA in daughter cells ? (a) The double helix in one daughter cell consists of two strands that were originally in the parent cell, while the double helix in the other daughter cell consists of two newly made strands. (b) The two strands of the double helices in both daughter cells consist of segments of new and parental DNA. (c) The double helices in each daughter cell consists of one parental strand and one newly made strand. (d) None of the above. Nucleotides are linked by (a) hydrogen bonds. (b) phosphodiester bonds. (c) peptic bonds. (d) ionic bonds. A geneticist isolates a gene for a specific traits under study, she also isolate the corresponding mRNA. Upon comparison, the mRNA is found to contain 1,000 fewer bases than the DNA sequence. Did the geneticist isolate the wrong DNA ? (a) Yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template and should be the same length as the gene sequence. (b) Yes, the mRNA should contain more bases than the DNA sequence because bases flanking the gene are also transcribed. (c) No, the final mRNA contains only exons, the introns were removed. (d) No, the mRNA was partially degraded after it was transcribed. A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized ? (a) AACGTAACG (b) UUGCAUUGC (c) AACGUAACG (d) TTGCATTGC During translation, proteins are synthesized by (a) ribosomes using the information on DNA. (b) lysosome using the information on DNA. (c) ribosome using the information on mRNA. (d) lysosome using the information on mRNA.

96.

What role does messenger RNA play in the synthesis of proteins ? (a) It catalysis the process. (b) It translates the genetic code to a specific amino acid. (c) It provides the genetic blue print for the protein. (d) It modifies messenger RNA molecules prior to protein synthesis. 97. What is the main function of tRNA in relation to protein synthesis ? (a) Initiates transcription (b) Inhibits protein synthesis. (c) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes. (d) proof reading. 98. Which of the following molecule contains the genetic code? (a) DNA (b) mRNA (c) tRNA (d) rRNA 99. What sequence on the template strand of DNA corresponds to the first amino acid inserted into a protein ? (a) TAC (b) UAC (c) UAG (d) AUG 100. Which of the following would you expect to find in an inducible system ? (a) A repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor. (b) A repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in the presence of a co-repressor. (c) An activator protein, which is bound to DNA in the absence of any other factor. (d) An activator protein, which is bound to DNA only in the absence of air inhibitor. 101. What effect would you expect if gene expression of the lac operon were completely repressed ? (a) The cell would be more efficient without 'wasting' the energy required for the low level of Lac Z, LacY, and Lac A gene expression. (b) Allolactose would accumulate within the cell and become toxic. (c) Lactose would not be converted into the inducer and the operon could not be induced. (d) All of the above 102. Which of the following is Not a goal of the human genome project ? (a) To sequence the genomes of selected model organisms. (b) To eliminate all diseases. (c) To consider social, ethical and legal aspects of genetic information. (d) To develop computational tools for analyzing sequence information.

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Molecular Basis of Inheritance 103. In addition to the human genome sequence, draft or finished genome sequences existed for eight model organisms by 2002. Which of the following organisms are not the part of that group of eight model organisms ? (a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (b) Drosophila melanogaster (c) Oryza sativa (d) Quercus rubra 104. Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as individuals differ in (a) number of minisatellites on chromosome. (b) location of minisatellites on chromosome. (c) size of minisatellites on chromosome. (d) All of the above

251

105. DNA fingerprinting using Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) is based on the observation that (a) every individual has unique alleles at each VNTR locus. (b) the DNA of VNTR loci is more stable than that of loci which code for proteins. (c) VNTR sequences show little variability. (d) VNTR loci are highly polymorphic. 106. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain (a) result in transcription. (b) polymerize in the 3' to 5' direction and forms replication form. (c) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication. (d) polymerize in the 5' to 3' direction and explain 3' to 5' DNA replication.

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Stanley L. Miller conducted experiments before 1953 on prebiotic earth environment using special apparatus. The primary surprising products were (a) amino acids

(b) peptides

(d) simple sugars

Who proposed that the first form of life come from preexisting non- living molecules? (a) Oparin and Haldane (b) de Vries and Haldane (c) Darwin and Lamarck (d) Louis Pasteur and Miller

How is extinction represented in a family tree diagram? (a) When a branch splits. (b) When a branch ends. (c) When a branch shifts along x - axis. (d) When a branch shifts along y - axis.

Atmosphere of earth just before the origin of life consisted of (a) water vapours, CH4, NH3 and oxygen. (b) CO2, NH3, and CH2 (c) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours. (d) CH4, O3, O2 and water vapours.

Analogous organs are (a) different in origin but perform similar functions. (b) common in origin and perform common functions. (c) common in origin but perform different functions. (d) different in origin and perform different functions.

Homologous organs show (a) divergent evolution. (b) convergent evolution. (c) parallel evolution. (d) both (b) and (c).

Chapter

Evolution

What is common amongst whale, seal and shark? (a) Homoiothermy (b) Seasonal migration (c) Thick subcutaneous fat (d) Convergent evolution 8. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of (a) retrogressive evolution. (b) analogous organs. (c) homologous organs. (d) vestigial organs. 9. Industrial melanism is an example of (a) drug resistance. (b) darkening of skin due to smoke from industries. (c) protective resemblance with the surroundings. (d) defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations. 10. Darwin’s finches are a good example of (a) convergent evolution (b) industrial melanism (c) connecting link (d) adaptive radiation 11. Adaptive radiation refers to (a) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments. (b) adaptations due to Geographical isolation. (c) evolution of different species from a common ancestor. (d) migration of members of a species to different geographical areas. 12. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of (a) biogeographical evolution (b) special creation (c) evolution due to mutation (d) retrogressive evolution

Evolution 13. The term ‘Survival of Fittest’ was used by (a) Charles Darwin (b) Herbert Spencer (c) Jean Baptiste (d) Hugo de Vries 14. Tasmanian Wolf is a marsupial while Wolf is a placental mammal. This shows (a) convergent evolution (b) divergent evolution (c) inheritance of acquired characters (d) None of these 15. Darwin was most influenced by (a) Lamarck’s theory of acquired characters. (b) Weismann’s theory of germplasm. (c) Wallace’s theory of origin of species. (d) Essay on Population by Malthus. 16. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called (a) Founder effect (b) saltation (c) branching descent (d) natural selection 17. A population is in Hardy- weinberg equilibrium for a gene with only two alleles. If the gene frequency of an allele A is 0.7, the genotype frequency of Aa is (a) 0.21 (b) 0.42 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.7 18. If the frequency of dominant allele is 60%, find out the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population. (a) 48% (b) 50% (c) 47% (d) 45% 19. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from (a) highly genetically variable individuals. (b) interbreeding within the population. (c) constant low mutation rate. (d) large population size. 20. Natural selection can lead to (a) stabilization (b) directional change (c) disruption (d) all of these 21. The first mammals were like (a) chimpanzee (b) gorilla (c) shrews (d) reptiles 22. Which one of the following was the first to stand erect ? (a) Peking Man (b) Australopithecus (c) Java Man (d) Cro-Magnon man 23. The extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons was (a) Ramapithecus (b) Australopithecus (c) Dryopithecus (d) Homo habilis

253

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 24. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Adaptative ability is inherited. (ii) Adaptative ability has a genetic basis (iii) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature. (a) Only (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iii) (c) All of these (d) None of these 25. Select the correct statement(s). (i) Microbial experiment show the pre-existing advantageous mutations when selected will result in the observation of new phenotypes. Over few generation this would result in speciation. (ii) Neanderthal fossils represent a human relative. (iii) In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a coelacanth (lobe fins) which was thought to be extinct. These animals evolved into the first amphibians living on both land and water. (iv) Lichens can be used as water pollution indicators. (v) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist, who worked in Malay Archaepelago (present Indonesia) had also come to similar conclusion on natural selection as reached by Darwinism. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) and (v) 26. Which of the following features are correct for Homo erectus ? (i) Had a large brain around 900 c.c. (ii) Probably ate meat. (iii) Appeared about 1.5 mya year ago. (iv) Evolved from H. habilis. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) None of these (d) All of these 27. Which of the following is/are incorrect about neanderthal man? (i) They had large brain around 900 c.c. (ii) They lived in near east and central Asia between 100000-40000 years back. (iii) They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. (iv) They had no religious feeling. (a) All of these (b) None of these (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) 28. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Life appeared about 500 M. yrs after the formation of earth. (b) Louis Pasteur belived that life appeared only from pre-existing life. (c) Oparin advocated that life came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. (d) All of the above

29. Read the following three statements (i - iii) and mark the right option. (i) The thorns in Bougainvillea and tendrils in cucurbits represent divergent evolution. (ii) The similarity in the eyes of Octopus and monkeys is the result of convergent evolution. (iii) The potato and sweet potato are the examples of homology. (a) (i) and (ii) correct (b) (ii) and (iii) correct (c) (i) and (iii) correct (d) All (i) are correct. 30. What is true regarding industrialization in England? (a) The white-winged moths were completely wiped out after industrialization. (b) Since lichens did not grow in polluted area, the number of melanized moths got reduced. (c) After industrialization the white-winged moths did not survive due to predators. (d) All of the above 31. Which of the following is a correct? (a) Homo erectus lived in east and central Asia and used hides to protect their bodies. (b) Agriculture came around 18000 yrs back. (c) The skull of modern human resembles more closely to baby chimpanzee than to adult chimpanzee. (d) All of the above 32. Which of the following is not a false statement ? (a) Life originated in mesozoic era. (b) Earth was formed about 4.6 million years ago. (c) Ist living organism in primitive ocean was coacervate. (d) Homologous organs show divergent evolution. 33. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Increase in melanized moths after industrialization in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection. (ii) When more individuals of a population acquire a mean character value, it is called disruption. (iii) Changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. (iv) Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generations. (a) (ii) only (b) (iv) only (c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) Both (i) and (iii) 34. Choose the wrong statement regarding Hardy-Weinberg principle. (a) Allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation. (b) Sum total of all the allelic frequencies in a population is 1.

Biology (c) Variation due to genetic drift results in changed frequency of genes and alleles in future generations. (d) Genetic recombination helps in maintaining HardyWeinberg equilibrium. 35. Given below are four statements (i - iv) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two out of four statements. (i) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of __(A)____, evolution. (ii) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and ___(A)___, when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in formation of ___(B)_____. (iii) Vermiform appendix is a ___(A)____ organ and an __(B)_____ evidence of evolution. (iv) According to Darwin, evolution took place due to ___(A)___ and ___(B)__ of the fittest. (a) (iv) – (A) small variations, (B) survival, (i) – (A) convergent (b) (i) – (A) convergent, (ii) – (A) oxygen, (B) nucleosides (c) (ii) – (A) water vapour, (B) amino acids, (iii) – (A) rudimentary, (B) anatomical. (d) (iii) – (A) vestigial, (B) anatomical, (iv) – (A) mutations, (B) multiplication 36. Identify the correct conclusion regarding the given statements. i. There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have diverged from a single ancestor species. ii. There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance distinct bird species on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a common ancestor. iii. There are common stages in the early embryological development of organisms representing several distinct vertebrate groups. iv. Anatomical structures, such as forelimbs, in different groups appear to be modified versions of structures that might have been present in a common ancestor. (a) These are the example of a macro evolutionary process. (b) They are the evidences for Lamarck's theory of inheritance. (c) They are the evidences for Darwin's theory of common descent. (d) They are the examples of natural selection which occurs within populations, where artificial selection does not occur.

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Evolution 37.

255

Which of the following statements best describe the theory of natural selection? (a) All organisms are equally suited to their environment. (b) Random selection will determine which organisms survive. (c) Organisms better adapted to their environment have greater reproductive success. (d) Organisms that produce the most offspring are better suited to their environment.

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 38. Assertion : Organic compounds first evolved in earth required for origin of life were protein and nucleic acid. Reason : All life forms were in water environment only. 39. Assertion : Among the primates, chimpanzee is the closest relative of the present day humans. Reason : The banding pattern in the autosome numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar. 40. Assertion : Natural selection is the outcome of differences in survival and reproduction among individuals that show variation in one or more traits. Reason : Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common; less adaptive ones become less common or disappear. 41. Assertion : The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. Reason :The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. 42. Assertion : Darwin's finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying insects and cactus seeds. Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin's finches radiated out from South American mainland to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they found competitor-free new habitats. 43. Assertion : The primitive atmosphere was reducing one i.e., without oxygen. Reason : In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was involved in forming ozone. 44. Assertion : Jave Ape-man, Peking man and Heidelberg man are the fossils of Homo erectus. Reason : Homo erectus evolved from Homo habilis.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 45. Match the evolution concepts given in column-I with column-II and select the correct answer. Column - I Column - II A. Mutation I. Change in population’s allele frequencies due to chance alone.

46.

47.

48.

Gene flow

II.

Differences in survival and reproduction among variant individuals. C. Natural selection III. Immigration, emigration change allele frequencies. D. Genetic drift IV. Source of new alleles. (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (b) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I (c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II (d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Human embryos I. Chemical evolution have gill B. Oparin and II. Stimulation experiment Haldane C. Miller and Urey III. Wings of bird and butterfly D. Analogous organs IV. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny (a) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (b) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II Match column I (containing list of scientists) with column II (their contributions) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Name of the Scientist) (Contributions) A. Charles Darwin I. Mutation theory B. Lamarck II. Germ plasm theory C. Hugo de Vries III. Philosophie Zoologique D. Ernst Haeckel IV. The Origin of species E. August Weismann V. Biogenetic law VI. Essay on population (a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – II (b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – VI (c) A – IV; B – VI; C – V; D – III; E – I (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – II Match column -I with column -II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Mesozoic I. First amphibians B. Devonian II. Proliferation of reptiles C. Palaeocene III. Raise of modern mammals D. Permian IV. Radiation of primitive mammals V. 160 million years (a) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II (b) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II (c) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – III

49.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Saltation I. Darwin B. Formation of II. Louis Pasteur life was preceded C. Reproductive III. de Vries fitness D. Life comes from IV. Oparin and haldane pre-existing life (a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I (c) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV (d) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II 50. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Wallace I. Essay on population B. Malthus II. Biston C. Hardy-weinberg III. p2 + q2 + 2pq =1 law D. Industrial IV. Co-proposer of melanism Natural selection (a) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (b) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II 51. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him? (a) Weismann

–

Theory of continuity of Germplasm (b) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters (c) De Vries – Natural selection (d) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis 52. Select the incorrect match from the given option. (a) Homo habilis-Their brain capacities were between 650-800cc (b) Homo erectus - Its fossil was discovered in Java in 1891 about 1.5 mya (c) Neanderthal man - They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. (d) Ramapithecus - Arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races 53. Which of the following pairs of terms is not related? (a) Evolution - Natural selection (b) Vestigial structure - Appendix (c) Analogous structures - Butterfly wings (d) Adaptive radiations - Vertebrates hearts or brains

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 54.

The given diagram represents Miller's experiment. Choose the correct combination of labelling A, B , C, D and E.

Spark discharge D

Mixture of gases (B)

Water out Water in

Boiling water

Water containing organic compound C

(a) A–Electrodes, B– NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4, C– liquid water in trap, D–vacuum pump (b) A– Electrodes, B–NH4 + H2 + CO 2 + CH3 , C– liquid water in trap, D – Vacuum pump (c) A– Electrodes, B–NH3 + H2O, C–liquid water in trap, D – Tap (d) A– Electrodes, B–NH3 + H2 + H2 O + CH4 , C – liquid water in trap, D– Vacuum pump 55. The diversity within the wild bird species in the diagram below can best be explained by which process?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Natural selection Ecological succession Adaptive radiation Both (a) and (c)

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Evolution 56.

257

The given diagram of marsupials of Australia provides an example of

Flying phalanger

Tasmanian wolf Banded anteater

Australian Marsupials

Marsupial rat

Koala

Kangaroo

57.

(a) convergent evolution (b) parallel evolution (c) recapitulation (d) divergent evolution Following is the diagrammatic representation of the operation of natural selection of different traits. Which of the following options correctly identifies all the three graphs A, B and C

(A)

Number of individuals with phenotype

A B C D (a) CarboniferousTriassic Cretaceous Quaternary (b) Jurassic Permian Tertiary Cretaceous (c) Permian Jurassic Quaternary Tertiary (d) Cretaceous Quaternary Carboniferous Jurassic 59. The given figure shows an example of

Peak gets higher and narrower

Phenotypes favoured by natural selection

Mediumsized individuals are favoured

Tendril

(B)

Two peaks form

(C)

A B C (a) Directional Stabilizing Disruptive (b) Stabilizing Directional Disruptive (c) Disruptive Stabilizing Directional (d) Directional Disruptive Stabilizing 58. Following is given the diagrammatic representation of evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological periods. Identify the geological periods (A, B, C and D) and select the correct option.

(a) homologous organs (b) convergent evolution (c) divergent evolution (d) both (a) and (c) 60. The diagram given below shows the skull of two different mammals. Which of the following accurately describes the differences between these skulls?

Proportion

(a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B. (b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B. (c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape. (d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human. 61. The following graph shows the range of variation among population members for a trait determined by multiple genes.

(d)

Proportion

(b)

Proportion

(c)

Proportion

(a)

Proportion

If this population is subject to stabilizing selection for several generations, which of the distributions (a -d) is most likely to result?

62. The given bones in the forelimbs of three mammals figure shows.

For these mammals, the number, position, and shape of the bones must likely indicates that they may have (a) developed in a common environment. (b) developed from the same earlier species. (c) identical genetic makeup. (d) identical methods of obtaining food. 63. The diagram below shows four species of birds that evolved from an ancestral species that had a small pointed beak. Today, all four species inhabit the same island.

Which statement best explains the variation in the beaks of these four species? (a) Over time, an abundance of seeds for food led to increased similarities between the species. (b) Over time, an abundance of seeds for food led to increased differences between the species. (c) Competition of limited food resources led to selection for similar traits. (d) Competition for limited food resources led to selection for different traits.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 64. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures? (a) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors. (b) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult. (c) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions. (d) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function. 65. Evolution is (a) progressive development of a race. (b) history and development of a race alongwith variations. (c) history of a race. (d) development of a race. 66. Select the correct order of geological time scale of earth. (a) Palaeozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Coenozoic (b) Archaeozoic ® Palaeozoic ® Proterozoic (c) Palaeozoic ® Mesozoic ® Coenozoic (d) Mesozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Proterozoic 67. The first organisms were (a) chemoautotrophs (b) chemoheterotrophs (c) autotrophs (d) eukaryotes 68. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for (a) intraspecific variations (b) intraspecific competition (c) interspecific competition (d) origin of Species by natural selection

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69.

According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth? (a) Methane (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour

70.

Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as.

77.

(a) adaptive radiation (b) natural selection (c) migration 71.

(d) divergent evolution

The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of

78.

(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution. (b) Analogous organ s that have evolved due to convergent evolution. (c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

(d) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution. Fossil remains of Archaeopteryx indicates that (a) it was a flying reptile from Triassic. (b) it was a flying reptile from Permian. (c) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian. (d) reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic. Archaeopteryx is known as missing connecting link because it is a fossil and shows the characters of (a) fishes and amphibians. (b) birds and reptiles. (c) reptiles and mammals. (d) chordates and nonchordates. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed as ________. (a) convergent evolution (b) divergent evolution (c) microevolution (d) co-evolution The concept of chemical evolution is based on (a) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions. (b) crystallization of chemicals. (c) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat. (d) effect of solar radiation on chemicals. The shape of the heals of Darwins finches, industrial melanism, or the changes in horse teeth are all examples of

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

(a) artificial selection. (b) natural selection. (c) convergent evolution. (d) homologous structures. Stabilizing selection favours (a) both extreme forms of a tract. (b) intermediate forms of a tract. (c) environmental differences. (d) one extreme form over the other extreme form and over intermediates forms of a tract. The term living fossil refers to a (a) life like fossil well preserved in amber. (b) fossil formed from a living animal. (c) living animal which is about to the fossilized. (d) living organisation showing some very primitive characters. Genetic drift in a new colony is known as the (a) natural selection (b) Founder effect (c) branching descent (d) saltation According to Lamarck, a giraffe has a long neck because (a) a creator designed it that way. (b) catastrophes eliminated short-necked forms. (c) its ancestors stretched their necks to get food. (d) ancestral giraffes with slightly longer necks than others got more food and left more surviving offspring. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of (a) evolution due to mutation (b) retrogressive evolution (c) biogeographical evolution (d) special creation Hugo de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on (a) Pisum sativum (b) Drosophila melanogaster (c) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) Althea rosea What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors? (a) Shortening of jaws (b) Binocular vision (c) Increasing cranial capacity (d) Upright posture. According to Darwin, two different areas within a continent have different species because they have different (a) evolutionary mechanisms (b) ancestors (c) environments (d) evolutionary times

85.

The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by (a) random mating (b) lack of immigration (c) lack of mutations (d) lack of random mating 86. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is (a) random creation of new species. (b) no change in the isolated fauna. (c) preventing speciation. (d) speciation through reproductive isolation. 87. What is meant by the term Darwin fitness? (a) The ability to survive and reproduce (b) High aggressiveness (c) Healthy appearance (d) Physical straight 88. Which one of the following changes involved is irrelevant in the evolution of man? (a) Perfection of hand for tool making. (b) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food. (c) Loss of tail. (d) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour.

89.

According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences. It makes several assumptions which were given below. i. Random Mating ii. Sexual Reproduction iii. Non-overlapping Generations iv. Occurrence of Natural Selection v. Small size of population Identify two assumptions which do not met for a population to reach Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? (a) iv and v (b) ii and iv (c) iii, iv and v (d) i, ii and iii 90. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium is based on which of the following equations? (a) p + pq + q = 1 (b) p + 2pq + q = 1 (c) p + p2q2 + q = 1 (d) p2 + 2pq +q2 = 1

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Which of the following disease is confirmed by ‘widal test’? (a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid (c) Plague (d) Tetanus The toxic substance, ‘haemozoin’, related to the high fever and chill, is released during which of the following disease? (a) Dengue (b) Malaria (c) Diphtheria (d) Phenumonia Malignant malaria is caused by the which of the following species of Plasmodium ? (a) vivax (b) malariae (d) ovale (d) falciparum The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermorphyton are responsible for (a) botulism (b) conjunctivitis (c) ringworms (d) skin allergy Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body. (a) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs (b) Muscles of the legs (c) Blood vessels of the thigh region (d) Skin between the fingers Food poisoning is caused by (a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Escherichia coli (c) Clostridium botulinum (d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae Amoebiasis is caused by (a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Entamoeba gingivalis (c) Trypanosoma gambiense (d) Entamoeba histolytica Vector for kala azar is: (a) sandfly (b) bedbug (c) louse (d) housefly

10.

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Chapter

Human Health and Disease

Which of the following set includes bacterial diseases ? (a) Tetanus, typhoid, tuberculosis (b) Small pox, influenza, tetanus (c) Meningitis, measles, syphilis (d) None of the above. Which of the following is a communicable disease? (a) Malaria (b) Diabetes (c) Hypertension (d) Kwashiorkar Black water fever is a severe complication of (a) Plasmodium falciparum (b) P. vivax (c) P. malariae (d) all of the above Mumps is a viral disease and painful swelling of (a) parotid glands (b) thyroid (c) thymus (d) sublingual glands Which of the following disease is not transmitted through contaminated water ? (a) Typhoid (b) Diphtheria (c) Amoebiasis (d) Hepatitis A In which of the following disease, there is always a time lag between the infection and appearance of the symptoms of that particular disease? (a) AIDS (b) Allergy (c) Cancer (d) Alcoholism Which of the following is the most accurate definition of infection? (a) The presence of microorganism in a particular location. (b) The disruption of normal host functions by microorganisms. (c) The survival and reproduction of microorganisms in a host. (d) The appearance of symptoms in a host, caused by microorganisms. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by (a) eating imperfectly cooked pork. (b) tse-tse fly. (c) mosquito bite. (d) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris.

17.

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The cells affected in leukaemia are (a) plasma cells (b) erythrocytes (c) thrombocytes (d) leucocytes To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong? (a) Physical barriers (b) Cytokine barriers (c) Cellular barriers (d) Physiological barriers Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro organisms in human body? (a) Skin (b) Epithelium of urogenital tract (c) Tears (d) monocytes Immunoglobulins are (a) antigen (b) antibodies (c) antiseptics (d) antibiotics Antigens are present (a) inside the nucleus. (b) on cell surface. (c) inside the cytoplasm. (d) on the nuclear membrane. A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is called (a) interferon (b) antigen (c) histone (d) antibody The cytotoxic cells are produced by (a) T-Cells (b) B-Cells (c) memory Cells (d) mast Cells The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to : (a) thymus (b) thyroid (c) thalamus (d) tonsil The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens is called (a) primary response (b) secondary response (c) immune suppression response (d) allergy Passive immunity is defined as immunity (a) inherited from the parents. (b) achieved through vaccination. (c) acquired through first exposure to the disease. (d) achieved through the sera of other animals enriched in antibodies. When body cannot differentiate between its own and foreign matter it is referred to as (a) passive immunity (b) active Immunity (c) autoimmunity (d) immunodeficiency Short -lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant, is categorized as (a) active immunity (b) passive immunity (c) cellular immunity

29.

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(d) innate non-specific immunity Organ transplant rejection may be prevented by using (a) antibodies (b) new T cells (c) immunosuppressive drug (d) immunostimulatory drug Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between (a) two light chains (b) two heavy chains (c) one heavy and one light chain (d) either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen. Inflammatory response in allergy is caused by (a) histamines (b) antigen (c) prothrombin (c) antibodes Resistance in body against diseases is given by (a) vaccinations (b) histamine (c) immunoglobulins (d) antigens The principle of vaccination is based upon which property of immune system ? (a) Memory (b) Diversity (c) Specificity (d) All of these Which of the following results in fever when released in body during disease ? (a) Pyrogens (b) Antibodies (c) Interferons (d) Interleukins The foetus gets immunized after receiving antibodies from mother through placenta. This type of immunization is called (a) active immunity (b) innate immunity (c) passive immunity (d) humoral immunity When a quick immune response is required due to infection of a deadly microbe, the patient is injected with (a) protein of pathogen (b) inactivated or weakened pathogen (c) preformed antibodies (d) vaccine Which of the following vaccine has been produced from yeast by recombinant DNA technology ? (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (c) Hib (d) Oral polio B-lymphocytes are associated with (a) humoral immunity (b) production of heparin (c) cell mediated immunity (d) internal cleansing Which of the following lymphoid organ provides the site for the interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen ? (a) Bone marrow (b) Thymus (c) Spleen (d) All of these Which of the following is trapped in the lymph nodes and responsible for the activation of lymphocytes present there and cause the immune response? (a) Antigen (b) Antibody (c) Pathogen (d) Lymph fluid

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Human Health and Disease 41.

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Which of the following is an autoimmune disease ? (a) Asthma (b) Rheumatoid arthritis (c) Cirrhosis (d) AIDS Hepatitis B and AIDS are (a) caused by Retro-viruses. (b) transmitted through sexual contact. (c) congenital diseases. (d) transmitted through infected blood. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is (a) Single stranded DNA. (b) Single stranded RNA. (c) Double stranded RNA. (d) Double stranded DNA. The cell in the human body invaded by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is (a) B - cell (b) macrophage (c) erythrocyte (d) T- helper cell Which is not immunity related disease ? (a) AIDS (b) Polio (c) Cancer (d) Small pox Which of the following endocrine glands is often referred in relation with AIDS? (a) Thyroid (b) adrenal (c) Thymus (d) Pancreas AIDS is due to (a) reduction in number of helper T cells (b) lack of interferon (c) reduction in number of killer T cells (d) autoimmunity Which of the following non-infectious disease is a major cause of death in human beings? (a) AIDS (b) Cirrhosis (c) Cancer (d) Asthma Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are (a) non-dividing (b) starved of mutation (c) different in structure (d) undergoing rapid division Metastasis is (a) part of regeneration. (b) transfer of cancer cells from one part of the body to another. (c) fast mitosis in cancer cells (d) all of the above Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT scanning and MRI are very useful to detect (a) autoimmune disorders. (b) disease caused by viral infection. (c) disease caused by bacterial infection. (d) disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells of internal organs.

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The use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of (a) fungal disease (b) viral disease (c) allergy (d) helminthes disease TB is cured by (a) griseofulvin (b) ubiquinone (c) rifampin (d) eucitol LSD is obtained from (a) Cannabis sativus (b) Erythroxylon cocca (c) Claviceps purpurea (d) Papaver somniferum The drug “Belladonna” is obtained from (a) Rauwolfia (b) Atropa (c) Capsicum (d) Solanum Which of the following are hallucinogens ? (a) Charas (b) Bhang (c) Ganja (d) All of these Which of the following is a narcotic drug? (a) Heroin (b) Codeine (c) Morphine (d) All of these Cyclosporin is used as is (a) allergic eczema (b) immunosuppressant (c) prophylactic for viruses (d) prophylactic for marasmus Opium is obtained from (a) Papaver somniferum (b) Rauwolfia serpentina (c) Cannabis sativus (d) Claviceps purpurea From which part of Atropa belladonna is the drug’belladona’ obtained? (a) Stems (b) Flowers (c) Leaves (d) Dried leaves and roots Narcotic drugs like charas, bhang and ganja are extracted from (a) hemp plant (b) coco plant (c) poppy seeds (d) hallucinogen Hashish and charas are obtained from (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Cannabis sativus (c) Papaver somniferum (d) Claviceps purpurea Opium is obtained from which part of the plant Papaver somniferum ? (a) Inflorescence (b) Male part (dried) (c) Seed (unripe) (d) Leave Ergot, a drug is derived from fungus (a) Aspergillus (b) Phytopthora (c) Clavicep (d) Perenospora Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by (a) cocaine (b) LSD (c) alcohol (d) morphine Atropine, an alkaloid, is obtained from (a) Datura anaroxia (b) Atropa belladonna (c) Hyocyamus niger (d) Withania somnifera

67.

LSD is obtained from (a) bryophyte (c) brown algae

(b) pleridophyte (d) fungus

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 68.

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Which of the following statement is correct ? (a) Injecting microbes during immunization induces passive immunity. (b) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection. (c) Colostrum during initial days of lactation provides active immunity to infant. (d) None of the above Which of the following statements regarding drugs are correct ? (i) Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine. (ii) Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum. (iii) Marijuana interferes with the transmission of dopamine. (iv) Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals ? (a) These are produced in thyroid. (b) These originate in lymphoid tissues. (c) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris. (d) There are three main types of T-lymphocytes cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells and suppressor T cells. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified? (a) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria (b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations. (c) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations. (d) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis. (b) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain. (c) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis. (d) Heroin accelerates body functions. The following four statements (i - iv) kidney transplant. Identify the two correct statements. (i) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppresants for a long time. (ii) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.

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(iii) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft. (iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on the specific interferons. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? (a) The causative HIV retr ovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers. (b) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person. (c) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection. (d) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition. Select the correct statement. (a) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery. (b) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth. (c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer. (d) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate. Sporozoites of the malarial parasite are found in (a) salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito. (b) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito. (c) red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria. (d) spleen of infected humans. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? (a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person. (b) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells. (c) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase. (d) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunization. (a) Certain protozoans have been used to produce hepatitis B vaccine. (b) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunization. (c) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen. (d) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that (a) pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.

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80.

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(b) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs. (c) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease. (d) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells ? (a) They divide in an uncontrolled manner. (b) They show contact inhibition. (c) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients. (d) They do not remain confined in the area of formation. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the number of helper T cells and the viral concentration in the blood? (a) As the number of HIV increase, so do the numbers of helper T cells. (b) As the number of HIV increase, the number of helper T cells decreases. (c) As the concentration of HIV decreases, the number of helper T cells increases. (d) There is no relationship between the concentration of HIV and the number of helper T cells. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease. (b) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline, and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of bacterial infection. (c) Several genes (called cellular oncogenes) have been identified in normal cells which when activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells. (d) The vaccine also generates memory – B and T cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.

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MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 90.

91.

Assertion : Cocaine has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy. Reason : It interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Assertion: Inspire of exposure to large number of infectious agents humans are resistive to diseases. Reason: Humans are able to defend against most of the foreign agents due to the ability to fight disease-causing organisms. Assertion: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins known as interferons. Reason: Interferons protect the non-infected cells from bacterial infection. Assertion: Artificially acquired passive immunity results when antibodies or lymphocytes produced outside the host are introduced into a host. Reason: A bone marrow transplant given to a patient with genetic immunodeficiency is an example of artificially acquired passive immunity. Assertion: Antiretroviral drugs are very effective in treatment against AIDS. Reason: AIDS virus is a retrovirus with ssDNA as genetic material. Assertion: IgG is the most abundant class of lgs in the body. Reason: IgG is mainly found in sweet, tears, saliva, mucus, colostrum and gastro-intestinal secretions.

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Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Malaria – Plasmodium (b) Plague – Yersinia pestis (c) Tuberculosis – Trichuris trichura (d) Sleeping – Trypanosoma sickness gambiense Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (a) Culex pipiens – Filariasis (b) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever (c) Female Anopheles – Leishmaniasis (d) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness Which one of the following pair is correctly match? (a) Bhang – Analgesic (b) Cocaine – Opiate narcotics (c) Morphine – Hallucinogen (d) Barbiturate – Sedatives Which one of the following is the correct match for diseases and its causative agents ? (a) AIDS – Bacillus (b) Syphilis – Treoponema pallidum (c) Malaria – Trypanosoma (d) Gonorrhoea – Virus

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Column I lists the components of body defence and column II lists the corresponding descriptions. Match the two columns and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (components of body defence) (Description) A. Active natural I. Injection of gamma immunity globulins B. First line of II. Complement proteins defence and interferons C. Passive natural III. Direct contact with immunity the pathogens that have entered inside D. Second line of IV. Surface barriers defence V. Antibodies transferred through the placenta (a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V (c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II (d) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I Match the disease given in column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/treatment) given in column II. Column-I Column-II (Diseases) (Pathogen/prevention/treatment) A. Amoebiasis I. Lassa virus B. Diphtheria II. Use only sterilized food and water C. Cholera III. DPT vaccine D. Rabies IV. Use oral rehydration therapy (a) A – II; B – III;C – IV; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection? Disease Causative Mode of Infection organisms (a) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected bancrofti water and food (b) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male vivax Anopheles mosquito (c) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired air typhi (d) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet infection pneumoniae

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In which one of the following options the two examples (given in column I) are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity (given in column II)? Column I Column II (Examples) (Type of immunity) (a) Saliva in mouth – Physical barriers and tears in eyes (b) Mucus coating of – Physiological barriers epithelium, urogential tract and HCl in stomach (c) Polymorphonuclear – Cellular barriers leucocytes and monocytes (d) Anti-tetanus and – Active immunity anti-snake bite injections Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Cholera – Vibrio cholerae (b) German measles – Rubella virus (c) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertussis (d) Tetanus – Pasteurella pestis Select the correct match of the symptoms of diseases given in column I with their respective pathogen of the diseases given in column II. Column I Column II A. Appearance of dry, scaly I. Entamoeba lesions on various parts histolytica of the body such as skin nails and scalp. B. Chronic inflammation II. Ascaris of the lymphatic vessel of lumbricoides lower limbs. C. Fever, chills, cough, III. Haemophilus headache and in severe cases influenzae the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour. D. Constipation, abdominal pain IV. Wuchereria and cramps, stool with excess bancrofti mucous and blood clots. E. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and V. Microsporum blockage of intestinal passage. (a) A – I; B – II;C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) A – III; B – V;C – II; D – IV; E – I (c) A – III; B – I;C – V; D – II; E – IV (d) A – V; B – IV;C – III; D – I; E – II

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DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 100. Identify the molecules (i) and (ii) given below and select the right option giving their source and use. CH3 O

(i)

(d) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral RNA; C - Viral RNA incorporates into host DNA; D - New viral DNA produced 102. Given figure shows the human lymphatic system with some part marked as A, B, C and D identify the correct part

CH3

H O H

A B

(ii) O H

Molecule (a) (i) Cocaine

Source Use Erythroxylum Accelerates the transport coca of dopamine (b) (ii) Heroin Depressant Cannabis and slows sativa down body functions (c) (ii) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces hallucinations belladonna (d) (i) Morphine Sedative and Papaver somniferum pain killer

101. Refer the given figure showing the mode of action of AIDS virus and identify the sequences labelled as A, B, C and D. AIDS virus

Virus infects normal animal cell C

(a) A - lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ), B thymus (primary lymphoid organ), C - spleen (secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow (secondary lymphoid organ) (b) A - lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ), B thymus (secondary lymphoid organ), C - spleen (primary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow (primary lymphoid organ) (c) A - lymph nodes (secondary lymphoid organ), B - thymus (primary lymphoid organ), C-spleen (secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow (primary. lymphoid organ) (d) A- lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ), B thymus (secondary lymphoid organ), C - spleen (secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow (secondary lymphoid organ) 103. The diagram given below shows an antibody molecule with their parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E & F. Identify the part marked as A, B, C, D, E and F. A

B (a) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral DNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host RNA; D - New viral RNA produced (b) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral RNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host DNA; D - New viral DNA produced (c) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral DNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host DNA; D - New viral RNA produced

D-chain C

F Bond/Bridge

E-chain

(a) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L-Chain); D Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Disulfide bond. (b) A - Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C - Variable region (of L-Chain); D Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Disulfide bond. (c) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L-Chain); D Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E - Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Hydrogen bond (d) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L-Chain); D Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E - Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Hydrogen bond

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 104. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus? (a) Typhoid and tetanus (b) AIDS and syphilis (c) Rabies and mumps (d) Cholera and tuberculosis 105. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immuno deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection? (a) WIDAL (b) ELISA (c) MRI (d) Ultrasound 106. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when (a) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside speen. (b) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins. (c) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs. (d) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs. 107. Hormone produced against allergic reaction is (a) epinephrine (b) nor-epinephrine (c) glucocorticoid (d) mineralocorticocoid 108. Vaccines produced through genetic engineering are considered safe because they (a) are active form of antigens. (b) are the least active forms. (c) contain antibodies for coat proteins only. (d) contain antibodies against whole antigen. 109. If you keep the sanitary system around yourself sound then the disease which will not most probably break out is : (a) cholera (b) malaria (c) beri-beri (d) scurvy

Biology 110. In polio, the legs get paralyzed and atrophied due to : (a) obstruction of muscles. (b) death of some muscles. (c) degeneration of bones. (d) shrinkage of muscles. 111. Which of these may cause hypothermia in humans ? (a) Smoking (b) LSD (c) Dopamine (d) Alcohol consumption 112. The main reason, why antibodies could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases, is the (a) Development of mutant strains resistant to antibodies. (b) Inactivation of antibodies by bacterial enzymes. (c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system. (d) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics. 113. Which part of the brain is not affected by alcohol? (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons varolii 114. Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons which causes (a) reduction in oxygen transport. (b) retardation of growth of foetus. (c) increase in blood sugar level. (d) cancer. 115. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it (a) secretes more bile. (b) stores excess of glycogen. (c) accumulates excess of fats. (d) all of the above. 116. There is a patient having a disease in which a semi–solid material oozes out and forms a tough membrane over it in air passage. The disease is called (a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) TB 117. What is common between mumps, cholera and TB ? (a) They are all bacterial diseases. (b) They are all endemic diseases. (c) They are all viral diseases. (d) They are all communicable diseases. 118. Saline is given to a person suffering with cholera because (a) it causes lysis of bacterial cell wall. (b) cholera results in severe diarrhoea leading to loss of salts. (c) both (a) & (b) (d) saline helps to produce antitoxins. 119. A person is injected with globulin against hepatitis. This is (a) naturally acquired active immunity. (b) naturally acquired passive immnity. (c) artificially acquired active immunity. (d) artificially acquired passive immunity.

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Human Health and Disease 120. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to (a) reduction in haemoglobin content of blood. (b) reduction in stem cell production. (c) loss of antibody mediated immunity. (d) loss of cell mediated immunity. 121. The best HLA (human leukocyte antigen) match for transplants in order of preference is (a) sibling > twin > parent > unrelated donor (b) twin > unrelated donor > parent > sibling (c) twin > sibling > parent > unrelated donor (d) sibling > parent > twin > unrelated donor 122. Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes? (a) Elephantiasis and dengue (b) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness (c) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness (d) Yellow fever and dengue 123. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as that of (a) Rhizopus, a mould (b) Ascaris, a round worm (c) Taenia, a tapeworm (d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm

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124. Given below are some reasons which affect health of human beings. Identify the correct reason. (i) Genetic disorders (ii) Infections (iii) Life styles (iv) Mental state (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) All of these 125. A person is suffering from one disease and shows the following symptoms, like sustained high fever (39 to 40 degree Celsius), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite. His doctor confirmed that he is suffering from one bacterial infection. On which of the following facts (given below) his doctor confirmed the bacterial infection. (i) Salmonella typhi bacteria are responsible for the infection. (ii) Streptococcus pneumonia is responsible for the infection. (iii) By seeing the report which shows the positive result of Widal test. (iv) The pathogen is transmitted through the bite of female Anopheles mosquito. (v) As a result of infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problem in respiration. (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (v) only (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

India and China have more than 70% of world livestock population and produce the following percentage of world farm. (a) 10 % (b) 25 % (c) 40 % (d) 50 % When breeding is between animals of the same breed it is called ______________, while crosses between different breeds are called ______________. (a) out-breeding; inbreeding (b) inbreeding; out-breeding (c) out breeding; cross-breeding (d) cross-breeding; inbreeding Inbreeding depression (a) usually increases fertility only. (b) usually reduces productivity only. (c) usually reduces fertility and productivity. (d) usually increases fertility and productivity. Which one of the following is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams? (a) Hisardale (b) White Leghorn (c) Assel (d) Langshan The 'mule' is the result of (a) inbreeding depression (b) out-breeding (c) cross-breeding (d) inter-specific hybridization MOET stands for (a) Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer Technology (b) Multiple Ovulation Energy Transport Technology (c) Method of Ovulation Energy Transfer Technology (d) Method of Ovulation Energy Transport Technology Which of the following stage is transferred to surrogate mothers in livestock breeding experiments? (a) Unfertilized eggs (b) Fertilized eggs (c) 8 to 32 celled embryo (d) Frozen semen

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Chapter

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

A branch of science that deals with the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey is called ______. (a) aquaculture (b) pisciculture (c) apiculture (d) sericulture Which of the following species of honeybee is reared in artificial hives? (a) Apis indica (b) Apis florea (c) Apis rohita (d) Apis dorsata Which one of the following is a freshwater fish? (a) Catla (b) Rohu (c) Common carp (d) All of these Which one of the following is/are marine fish? (a) Rohu (b) Hilsa (c) Mackerel (d) Both (b) and (c) 33 percent of India’s GDP (Gross Domestic Product) comes from ______________ and employs _____________ percent of the population. (a) industry; 70 (b) agriculture; 62 (c) export; 30 (d) agriculture; 75 The new varieties of plants are produced by (a) selection and hybridization. (b) mutation and selection. (c) introduction and mutation. (d) selection and introduction. Which of the following is a variety of Brassica resistant to white rust disease? (a) Himgiri (b) Pusa komal (c) Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) (d) Pusa Sadabahar Pusa Snowball K–1 is a variety of (a) wheat (b) chilli (c) cowpea (d) cauliflower Which of the following processes is used for creating genetic variation by changing the base sequence within genes resulting in the creation of a new character or trait not found in the parental type? (a) Selection (b) Hybridization (c) Mutation (d) Breeding

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 17.

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Which of the following is generally used for induced mutagenesis in crop plants? (a) X-rays (b) UV (260 nm) radiations (c) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)(d) Alpha particles Which one of the following technique is used for the manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation and give better yields and are disease resistant? (a) Out-breeding (b) Out-crossing (c) Cross-breeding (d) Plant breeding The entire collection (of plants/ seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called _________. collection. (a) germplasm (b) genome (c) genebank (d) genotype In Abelmoschus esculentus (bhindi), resistance genes are transferred from a wild species against yellow mosaic virus and resulted in a new variety of A. Esculentus called _____ (a) Pusa swarnim (b) Himgiri (c) Pusa sadabahar (d) Parbhani kranti Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for resistance to maize stem borers? (a) High aspartic acid (b) Low nitrogen content (c) Low sugar content (d) All of the above Which of the following variety of wheat, having a high protein content, has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat ? (a) Himgiri (b) Atlas 66 (c) Sonalika (d) Kalyan Sona A plant cell has potential to develop into full plant. This property of the plant cell is called ________ . (a) tissue culture (b) totipotency (c) pleuripotency (d) gene cloning An explant is a (a) dead plant. (b) part of the plant. (c) part of the plant used in tissue culture. (d) part of the plant that expresses a specific gene. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called _______ . (a) micropropagation (b) macropropagation (c) plantlet culture (d) organ culture Protoplast of two different species are fused in _______. (a) micropropagation (b) somatic hybridization (c) clonal propagation (d) organography

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 27.

Which of the following statements about breeding is incorrect? (a) By inbreeding, purelines cannot be evolved. (b) Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity. (c) Cross-breeding allows desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.

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(d) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (a) Haploid culture technique was developed by Guha and Maheshwari. (b) A line consists of a group of individuals related by descent and with similar genotype. (c) Mutation is a sudden heritable change in a character of an organism. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is correct (a) A gene bank should not be regarded as a plant museum. (b) The germplasm, stored in the gene bank are actively utilized by breeders to develop novel varieties. (c) The phase between 1960 - 1970 is often called the Green Revolution. (d) All of the above Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect? (a) In 2000, maize hybrids that had twice the amounts of the amino acids, lysine and proline, compared to existing maize hybrids were developed. (b) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi has released several vegetable crops that are rich in vitamins and minerals. (c) Some of the diseases caused by fungi are black rot of crucifers, tobacco mosaic, turnip mosaic etc. (d) Both (a) and (c) Consider the following four statements (i – iv) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only. (i) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins, etc. (ii) Body weight-wise, th e micro-organ ism Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day. (iii) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C. (iv) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium. (a) (iii) and (iv) only (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (ii) only Select the correct statement(s). (i) IARI has released a mustard variety rich in vitamin C. (ii) Pusa Sawani, a variety of Okra is resistant to aphids. (iii) Hairiness of leaves provides resistance to insect pests. (iv) Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of India's GDP and employs nearly 62% of the population. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these

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Read the following statement(s) and answer the question. (i) Animal husbandry is the industrial practice of breeding and raising livestock. (ii) Dairy farm management deals with processes which improve the quality and quantity of milk production. (iii) Poultry is the class of domesticated birds used for food or eggs. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct? (a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding inbreeding? (i) It is the mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations. (ii) It decreases homozygosity . (iii) It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection. (iv) Inbreeding depression results due to continued Inbreeding, especially close – inbreeding, may reduce fertility and productivity. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) Which of the following includes all the characteristics described given below ? (i) In this method of breeding, the mating of animals occurs with same breed. (ii) They have no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4 - 6 generations. (iii) It is best for those animals that are below average in productivity in milk production, growth rate in beef cattle. (iv) It helps to overcome inbreeding depression. (a) Inbreeding (b) Out-breeding (c) Out-crossing (d) Cross-breeding Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (i) Fishery is an industry, which deals with catching, processing and marketing of fishes and other aquatic animals such as prawn, crab, lobster, edible oyster, etc. that have a high economic value. (ii) Both aquaculture and pisciculture are same. (iii) The development and flourishing of the fishery industry is called silver revolution. (a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (i) Out-breeding is the breeding of the unrelated animals which may be between individuals of the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4 - 6 generations or between different breeds or different species. (ii) Cross-breeding allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined. (iii) In interspecific hybridization, male and female animals of two different related species are mated.

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(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Sonalika and Kalyan sona were low yielding and disease resistant crops. (b) Saccharum barberi had high sugar content and yield, but was originally grown in north India. (c) Saccharum officinarum had thicker stems and higher sugar content, but did not grow well in north India. (d) Both (a) and (c)

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 39.

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Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column -I Column -II A. Pisciculture I. Micropropagation B. Apiculture II. Crop production C. Tissue culture III. Rearing of fishes D. Green revolution IV. Fish-production E. Blue revolution V. Bee-keeping (a) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – II (b) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV (c) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II; E – IV (d) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – IV Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Many people I. Single cell proteins have deficiencies as they cannot buy fruits & vegetables B. Crops with higher II. Micropropagation vitamins, proteins and fats C. Growing microbes III. Somaclones as the alternative source of proteins D. Capacity to IV. Hidden hunger generate plant from a single cell or explant E. Production of V. Bio-fortification thousand plants through tissue culture F. Genetically VI. Totipotency identical plants (a) A – IV; B – V; C – VI; D – I; E – II; F – III (b) A – IV; B – V; C – VI; D – I; E – III; F – II (c) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – VI; E – II; F – III (d) A – VI; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II; F – III

EBD_7209

Biology

272

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 41.

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Choose the option showing the crop plants with its correct A. Semi Dwarf Wheat I. Sonalika B. Semi Dwarf Rice II. Kalyan sona III. IR-8 IV. Jaya V. Taichung Native-1 VI. Ratna (a) A – I, III, V; B – II, IV, VI (b) A – III, IV, V, VI; B – I, II (c) A – I, II, IV; B – III, V, VI (d) A – I, II; B – III, IV, V, VI Match the crops given in column-I with their resistance to disease given in column-II and choose the correct option. Column-1 Column-II (Crop) (Resistance to diseases) A. Wheat I. Tobacco mosaic virus and leaf curl B. Brassica II. Bacterial blight C. Cowpea III. Leaf and stripe rust D. Cauliflower IV. White rust E. Chilli V. Black rot and curl blight black rot (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I (c) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II Which of the following crop plant is not matching as correct pair with its variety ? (i) Wheat – Himgiri (ii) Brassica – Pusa Gaurav (iii) Cauliflower – Pusa Komal (iv) Chilli – Pusa Sadabahar (v) Okra – Pusa Sawani (a) Only (i) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Which of the following is not correctly matched with its variety? (a) Brassica (rapeseed mustard) – Pusa Gaurav (b) Cowpea – Pusa Sadabahar (c) Flat been –Pusa sem 2 (d) Okra (Bhindi) – Pusa A- 4 Which of the following is incorrectly matched ? (a) Explant – Excised plant part used for callus formation (b) Cytokinins – Root initiation in callus (c) Somatic embryo – Embryo produced from a vegetative cells (d) Anther culture – Haploid plants Which of the following pair is correctly matched? (a) Sericulture - Fish (b) Pisciculture - Silk moth (c) Aquaculture - mosquitoes (d) Apiculture - Honey bee

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DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTION 52.

Refer the given figures and answer the questions.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the above figures? (i) These are all Indian hybrid crops of low yielding varieties. (ii) These are all Indian hybrid crops of high yielding varieties. (iii) The production of the above crops led to dramatic increase in food production. (iv) These crops are produced as a result of various plants breeding technique. (a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (iii) only

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 53.

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Select the correct chronological order of the events occuring during callus culture (a) Callus ® Cell division ® Explant ® Addition of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property. (b) Explant ® Callus ® Cell division ® Addition of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property. (c) Explant ® Cell division ® Callus ® Addition of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property. (d) Callus ® Explant ® Cell division ® Addition of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property. Which one of the following combination would a sugarcane farmer look for in the sugarcane crop ? (a) Thick stem, long internodes, high sugar content and disease resistant. (b) Thick stem, high sugar content and profuse flowering. (c) Thick stem, short internodes, high sugar content, disease resistant. (d) Thick stem, low sugar content, disease resistant. The biggest compulsion of plant breeding is (a) infrastructure. (b) trained manpower. (c) transfer of genes from unrelated sources. (d) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives. High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by (a) super ovulation

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(c) use of surrogate mothers (d) all of the above Crop improvement is possible through (a) judicious combination of selection, introduction and hybridization. (b) selection (c) scientific improvement of cultivated plants. (d) introduction. In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture the best method is (a) meristem culture (b) protoplast culture (c) embryo rescue (d) anther culture Which of the following is the process of choosing parent organisms for the characteristic that is wanted in their offspring? (a) Active selection (b) Reproductive selection (c) Selective breeding (d) None of the above Which of the following is the consequence of plant diseases? (a) Reduced yield and lower quality of produce. (b) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce and increased cost of production.

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(c) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce and poisonous produce. (d) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce, increased cost of production and poisonous produce. Sharbati sonora variety of wheat was obtained by (a) X-ray treatment. (b) crossing with wild varieties of wheat. (c) hybridization between wild grasses. (d) irradiation of sonora 64 with gamma rays. Plants derived sexually from the same plant are _______while those derived from somatic tissue from the same plant are ______________. (a) identical, different (b) different, also different (c) different, identical (d) identical, also identical Which of the following pair of hormones are required for a callus to differentiate ? (a) Auxin and cytokinin (b) Auxin and ethylene (c) Auxin and abscisic acid (d) Cytokinin and gibberellin In crop improvement programme, haploids are important because they (a) require one half of nutrients. (b) are helpful in study of meiosis. (c) grow better under adverse conditions. (d) form perfect homozygous. Which of the following techniques used in animal biotechnology are required for the rapid multiplication and production of animals with a desirable genotype ? (a) Protoplast fusion and embryo transfer. (b) Hybrid selection and embryo transfer. (c) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer. (d) All of the above The way in which biotechnology is contributed to sustainable agriculture is (a) biofertilizer (b) single cell protein (SCP) (c) disease and insect resistant varieties (d) all of the above An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice (a) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones. (b) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A. (c) is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy. (d) gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains is due to (a) cellular totipotency (b) organogenesis (c) double fertilization (d) test-tube culture Plants can be disease resistant by (a) breeding with their wild relatives. (b) colchicine treatment. (c) hormone treatment. (d) heat treatment.

EBD_7209

Biology

274

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 70.

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The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is (a) extensive use of insecticides and pesticides. (b) extensive mixed cropping. (c) introduction of high yielding varieties. (d) extensive use of fertilizers. Which of the following is not used for crop improvement? (a) Inbreeding (b) Introduction (c) Hybridization (d) Mutations Somaclonal variation appears in (a) organisms produced through somatic hybridization. (b) plants growing in highly polluted conditions. (c) apomictic plants. (d) tissue culture raised plants. Totipotency refers to the (a) capacity to generate genetically identical plants. (b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell explant.

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(c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts. (d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by one of the breeding technique in which superior male of one breed is mated with superior females of another breed. Identify the breeding technique from the option given below. (a) Inbreeding (b) Out crossing (c) Out breeding (d) Cross breeding On the basis of the following process, answer the question. (i) gene transfer (ii) transfer of cytoplasm (iii) production of useful allopolyploids Which of the following term is used in the given process? (a) Somatic hybrid (b) Single cell protein (c) Bio - fortification (d) None of the above

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Which of the following bacteria converts milk into curd ? (a) Propionibacterium (b) Lactobacillus (c) Streptococcus (d) Bacillus Which role is played by lactic acid bacteria (LAB) in our stomach ? (a) Beneficial (b) Harmful (c) Neutral (d) All of these Lactic acid bacteria convert milk into curd and improves its nutritional quality by enhancing (a) vitamin A (b) vitamin B (c) vitamin C (d) vitamin D The bacterium that commonly lives in animal and human intestine is (a) Bacillus anthracis (b) Vibrio cholerae (c) Escherichia coli (d) Corynebacterium Which gas is responsible for the puffed-up appearance of dough ? (a) CO2 (b) O2 (c) SO2 (d) NO2 In cheese microorganisms are required for (a) ripening only (b) souring of milk only (c) souring and ripening (d) development of resistance to spoilage Which of the following scientists sh owed that Saccharomyces cerevisiae causes fermentation forming products such as beer and buttermilk ? (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Alexander Flemming (c) Selman Waksman (d) Schatz Saccharomyces cerevisiae is employed in production of (a) idli (b) beer (c) bread (d) all of these Which bacterium helps in the production of ‘Swiss cheese’? (a) Propionibacterium sharmanii (b) Trichoderma polysporum (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Aspergillus niger

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Chapter

Microbes in Human Welfare

Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of alcohol ? (a) Bacteria (b) Bread molds (c) Yeasts (d) Slime molds Conversion of sugar into alcohol during fermentation is due to the direct action of (a) temperature (b) micro-organisms (c) zymase (d) concentration of sugar solution Glucose fermentation by yeast yields (a) ethanol + CO2 (b) ethanol + H2O (c) methanol + CO2 (d) H2O + CO2 Streptokinase, used as a ‘clot buster’ is obtained from (a) Streptococcus (b) Staphylococcus (c) Lactobacillus (d) Saccharomyces Cyclosporin A is used for (a) dissolving blood clots (b) lowering cholesterol level (c) immunosuppression (d) enhancing tenderness of meat The bioactive molecule cyclosporin A is used in the treatment of (a) whooping cough (b) diphtheria (c) leprosy (d) organ-transplant patients Statins are obtained from (a) Streptococcus (b) Mucor javanicus (c) Monascus purpureus (d) Clostridium butyricum Statins, a bioactive molecule, inhibits the enzyme responsible for synthesis of (a) carbohydrate (b) protein (c) vitamins (d) cholesterol Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of (a) ethanol (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels (c) citric acid (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins

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The large vessels for growing microbes on an industrial scale are called _________ . (a) petridish (b) digestors (c) biogas vessel (d) fermentors Sewage purification is done by (a) microbes (b) fertilizers (c) antibiotics (d) antiseptics The chemical substances produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other microbes are called _________ . (a) toddy (b) lactic acid (c) antibiotics (d) ethanol Primary treatment of sewage is (a) physical process (b) biological process (c) chemical process (d) biochemical process Primary sludge is used for the (a) preparation of compost (b) preparation of manure (c) biogas production (d) all of these Passage of effluents into oxidation tank is for (a) primary treatment (b) secondary treatment (c) tertiary treatment (d) both (a) and (b) The amount of oxygen required by microbes in the decomposition of organic matter is called _________ . (a) chemical oxygen demand (b) biochemical oxygen demand (c) total oxygen demand (d) dissolve oxygen BOD refers to (a) bacteria oxygen demand (b) biochemical oxygen demand (c) biochemical operation demand (d) biological organism demand Sewage treatment process in which part of decomposer bacteria is recycled into starting of the process is called __________ . (a) cyclic treatment (b) primary treatment (c) tertiary treatment (d) activated sludge treatment During sewage treatment, biogases produced include which of the following gases ? (a) Methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide (b) Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide (c) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane (d) Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide Ganga and Yamuna action plan is initiated by (a) Ministry of environment and forest. (b) Ministry of agriculture. (c) Ministry of wild-life conservation. (d) None of the above Methanogenic bacteria are present in (a) anaerobic sludge (b) rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

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The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of (a) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). (b) National Botanical Research Institute (NBR1). (c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). (d) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting a piece of DNA from (a) an insect (b) a wild relative of cotton (c) a bacterium (d) a virus Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is (a) Trichoderma sp. (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (c) Bacillus thuringiensis (d) Streptococcus sp. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for (a) killing insects. (b) biological control of plant diseases. (c) controlling butterfly caterpillars. (d) producing antibiotics. Baculoviruses (nucleopolyhedrovirus) does not show (a) host specificity. (b) narrow spectrum applications. (c) effects on non-target pathogens. (d) utility in IPM programme. Which of the following serve as biofertilizer in paddy fields? (a) Bacteria (b) Yeast (c) Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) (d) Fungi A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla is (a) Anabaena (b) Tolypothrix (c) Chlorella (d) Nostoc Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer ? (a) Nostoc (b) Funaria (c) Volvox (d) Rhizopus Symbiotic asociation is exhibited by I. Mycorrhiza II. Rhizobium III. Heterocyst IV. Yeast (a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) II, III, IV (d) I, II The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants is called __________ . (a) lichen (b) mycorrhiza (c) biofertilizer (d) BOD

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 41.

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Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for (a) species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal applications. (b) species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal applications. (c) species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal applications. (d) species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal applications. Which one of the following statement regarding BOD is true? (a) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential. (b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential. (c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential. (d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential. Which one of the following is not true about antibiotics? (a) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Flemming. (b) The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by S. Waksman in 1942. (c) Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic. (d) Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ. Pollution from animal excreta and organic wastes from kitchen can be most profitably minimised by (a) storing them in underground storage tanks. (b) using them for producing biogas. (c) vermiculture. (d) using them directly as biofertilizers. Benefits of mycorrhizae are (i) resistance to root-borne pathogens. (ii) tolerance of salinity and absorption of phosphorus. (iii) tolerance to drought. (iv) overall increase in the plant growth and development. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) all of these Organic farming includes (a) use of fertilizers and pesticides of biological origin. (b) IPM (integrated pest management programme). (c) locally developed pest resistant varieties. (d) all of the above Which of the following statements is not true for stirred tank fermentaion ? (a) Buffer needed to control pH. (b) Batch and feed possible. (c) Control dissolved oxygen. (d) Easy in process sampling.

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Which of the following statement is correct ? (a) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle. (b) Biogas (commonly called gobar gas) is pure methane. (c) Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plants is rich source of aerobic bacteria. (d) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste. Which one of the following is the most important role of microorganism for the well-being of humans? (a) Sewage treatment (b) Production of methane (c) Biological control of plant disease (d) Conversion of milk to curd Consider the following statements about organic farming. (i) It utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton. (ii) It uses only naturally produced inputs like compost. (iii) It does not use pesticides and urea. (iv) It produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv) only (c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i) and (ii) only What are the advantages of gobar gas over conventional utilization? (i) It is most efficient source of energy. (ii) It is used as good fertilizer. (iii) It reduces the chances of spreading of pathogens. (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) all of these

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Microbes in Human Welfare 55.

56.

Assertion : Biopesticides help in overcoming the disadvantages of chemical pesticides. Reason : Biopesticides are harmless as they do not cause any damage. Assertion : Biogas has been used as a fuel for the purposes of lighting and cooking. Reason : It does not cause pollution and is ecofriendly.

279

61.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 57.

58.

59.

60.

Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (a) Yeast – Ethanol (b) Streptomyces – Antibiotics (c) Lactobacillus - Beer (d) Methanogens – Gobar gas Match the columns and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II A. Aspergillus niger I. Ethanol B. Clostridium II. Statins butydicum C. Saccharomyces III. Citric acid cerevisiae D. Trichoderma IV. Butyric acid polysporum E. Monascus V. Cyclosporin A purpureus (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V (b) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II (d) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II Match the items of column-I with column-II and choose correct answer. Column-I Column-II A. Lady bird I. Methanobacterium B. Mycorrhiza II. Trichoderma C. Biological control III. Aphids D. Biogas IV. Glomus (a) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV Match the columns and choose the correct combination. Column-I Column-II A. Escherichia coli I. ‘nif ’ gene B. Rhizobium II. Digests (hydrocarbons meliloti of crude) oil C. Bacillus III. Human insulin thuringiensis production D. Pseudomonas IV. Biocontrol of fungal putida disease V. Biodegradable insecticide

62.

(a) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II (b) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV Find out the pairs which are correctly matched. Column-I Column-II A. Cyanobacteria I. Biopesticides B. Mycorrhiza II. Solubilization of phosphate C. Bacillus III. Cry protein thuringiensis D. Single cell protein IV. Rhizobia (a) A and II (b) C and III (c) C and IV (d) A and III The given table contains type of microbe (Column I), Scientific name (Column II) and commercial product (Column III). Some names are replaced by A, B, C and D. Identify the correct names.

Type of Microbe Bacterium Fungus C Fungus

Scientific Name A

Commercial Product Lactic acid

Cyclosporin A

Monascus purpureus Statins D

Penicillium notatum

(a) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Yeast (fungus), D – Penicillin (b) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Yeast (algae), D – Penicillin (c) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Yeast (prokaryote), D – Penicillin (d) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Agaricus (fungus), D – Penicillin 63.

The given table contains type of microbe (Column I), Scientific name (Column II) and commercial product (Column III). Some names are replaced by A, B, C and D. Identify the correct names.

Type of Microbe Bacterium

Scientific Name A

Aspergillus niger

Fungus

Trichoderma polysporum D

Bacterium

Commercial Product Clot buster enzyme Citric acid C Butyric acid

(a) A – Streptococcus, B – Fungus, C – Cyclosporin-A, D – Clostridium butylicum (b) A – Clostridium butylicum, B – Streptococcus, C – Fungus, D – Cyclosporin-A (c) A – Cyclosporin-A, B - Clostridium butylicum C – Streptococcus, D – Fungus (d) A – Fungus, B – Cyclosporin-A, C – Clostridium butylicum, D - Streptococcus Identify the blank spaces marked A, B, C and D from the table given below.

64.

Type of Microbe (i)

fungus

(ii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

67.

Scientific Name A

Product

Medical Application product

Cyclosporin

Monascus C statin D purpurens A–Trichoderma polyspora, B – Organ transplant patients, C – Yeast (fungus), D – Lowering of blood cholesterol. A–Lowering of blood cholesterol, B – Trichoderma polyspora, C – Organ transplant patients, D – Yeast (fungus). A – Yeast (fungus), B – Lowering of blood cholesterol, C – Trichoderma polyspora, D – Organ transplant patients. A – Organ transplant patients, B – Yeast (fungus), C – Lowering of blood cholesterol, D – Trichoderma polyspora.

Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option Column-I Column-II A. Statins I. Yeast B. Ethanol II. Blood-cholesterol lowering agent C. Dung III. Insect-resistant plant D. Bt-cotton IV. Biogas (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 66.

The diagram below shows a typical biogas plant. With few structure labelled as A, B and C. Identify A, B and C.

(a) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Oxygen, C – Dung, water (b) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C– Dung, water (c) A – Sludge, B – Ethylin, Carbon dioxide, C – Dung, water (d) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C – Sewage

The given figure shows the sewage treatment with few steps are marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4. In which of the following options, correct word for all the four numbers (1,2,3 and 4) are indicated.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemical agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanical agitation, 3 – Low, 4 – Anaerobic 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemical agitation, 3 –Low, 4 – Aerobic 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanical agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 68.

65.

Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers? (a) Azolla and blue green algae (b) Nostoc and legume (c) Rhizobium and grasses (d) Salmonella and E. coli

69.

70.

Microbes are a diverse group which includes. I. Bacteria II. Mosses III. Protozoans IV. Fungi (a) I, III, IV (b) I, IV (c) I, II (d) III, IV Microbes are present in I. soil II. air III. water IV. thermal springs

EBD_7209

Biology

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Microbes in Human Welfare

71.

72.

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(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) I, II (d) III, IV The following bacteria help in nitrogen fixation from atmosphere. I. Azotobacter II. Rhizobium III. Azospirillum IV. Lactobacillus Identify the correct bacteria. (a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) II, III, IV (d) I, II, III Which of the following is used as biofertilizer ? I. Cyanobacteria II. Yeast III. Symbiotic bacteria IV. Free living bacteria (a) I, II, III (b) I, II, IV (c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, IV Some industrial products are given below which are synthesized from microbes. I. Antibiotics II. Fermented beverages III. Enzymes and chemicals IV. Bioactive molecules Choose the correct option. (a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) I, III (d) I, II, III Methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic material and produces which of the following gases ? I. Methane II. Oxygen III. Carbon dioxide IV. Hydrogen (a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) II, III, IV (d) I, II Cheese and yogurt are products of (a) pasteurisation (b) fermentation (c) dehydration (d) distillation Antibiotics are drugs commonly used to cure diseases of (a) fungi (b) viruses (c) protozoans (d) bacteria Which of the following is common to Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria? (a) Prokaryotes (b) Nitrogen-fixers (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Eukaryotes Lactobacillus mediated change of milk to curd occurs due to (a) coagulation and partial digestion of milk fats. (b) coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins. (c) coagulation of milk proteins and complete digestion of milk fats. (d) coagulation of milk fats and complete digestion of proteins. Crystals of Bt-toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because (a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin. (b) toxin is inactive. (c) toxin is immature. (d) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sec. Choose the correct sequence of microbes involved in biogas production. (a) Fragmentative microbes, decomposers, methanogens. (b) Decomposers, methanogens, putrefying microbes.

281

81.

82.

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84.

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(c) Putrefying microbes, methanogens, saprophytic microbes. (d) Decomposers, fermentative microbes, methanogens. Read the following statement. “A drug used for ———— (A) ———— patients is obtained from a species of the organism ———— (B) — ———.” Identify A and B. A B (a) Heart Penicillium (b) Organ-transplant Trichoderma (c) Swine flu Monascus (d) AIDS Pseudomonas Which one of the micro-organism is used for production of citric acid in industries? (a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (b) Penicillium citrinum (c) Aspergillus niger (d) Rhizopus nigricans Biogas can be a good substitute for (a) fuel wood (b) petroleum and oil (c) coal (d) charcoal A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of (a) Pseudomonas (b) Trichoderma (c) Xanthomonas (d) Bacillus Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used as (a) biofertilizers (b) biometallurgical techniques (c) biomineralization processes (d) bioinsecticidal plants Microbes are used in the I. primary treatment of sewage. II. secondary treatment of sewage. III. anaerobic sludge digester. IV. production of bioactive molecules. Choose the correct option showing the uses of microbes. (a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) II, III, IV (d) IV, I, II What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is reduced? (a) It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter. (b) The centre of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs. (c) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around flocs. (d) Protozoa would grow in large numbers. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in (a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom. (b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients. (c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen. (d) incr eased population of aquatic food web organization.

EBD_7209

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Plasmid has been used as vector because (a) both its ends show replication. (b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. (c) it is circular DNA which have capacity to join to eukaryotic DNA. (d) it has antibiotic resistance gene. Which of the following is a plasmid? (a) pBR 322 (b) Bam H I (c) Sal I (d) Eco R I Which of the following is known as specific molecular scissors? (a) Ligase (b) Helicase (c) Restriction endonuclease (d) DNA polymerase The first restriction endonuclease reported was (a) Hind II (b) EcoRI (c) Hind III (d) BamHI Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes, which is called as (a) ligases (b) kinases (c) nucleases (d) polymerases There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does .co part in it stand for ? (a) Colon (b) Coelom (c) Coenzyme (d) coli Restriction endonuclease - Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of (a) six base pairs. (b) five base pairs. (c) four base pairs. (d) seven base pairs. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments is called (a) ligase (b) restriction endonuclease (c) DNA polymerase (d) gyrase

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Chapter

Biotechnology : Principles and Processes

Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme? (a) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3' 3'.............ATGGTA.............5' (b) 5'.............GATATG.............3' 3'.............CTACTA.............5' (c) 5'.............GAATTC.............3' 3'.............CTTAAG.............5' (d) 5'.............CACGTA.............3' 3'.............CTCAGT.............5' DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by (a) polymerase chain reaction (b) electrophoresis (c) restriction mapping (d) centrifugation Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used in (a) spectrophotometry (b) tissue culture (c) PCR (d) gel electrophoresis In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used (a) as selectable markers. (b) to select healthy vectors. (c) to keep the cultures free of infection. (d) as sequences from where replication starts. During heat shock to the bacterium, the temperature used for giving thermal shock is (a) 52°C (b) 100°C (c) liquid nitrogen (d) 42°C Which of the following enzyme is used in case of fungus to cause release of DNA along with other macromolecules ? (a) Lysozyme (b) Cellulase (c) Chitinase (d) Amylase During isolation of DNA, addition of which of the following causes precipitation of purified DNA ? (a) Chilled ethanol (b) Ribonuclease enzyme (c) DNA polymerase (d) Proteases

Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

Which of the following is a natural genetic engineer of plants ? (a) Yeast (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) E. coli (d) Mycoplasma _______ is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. (a) Transduction (b) Transformation (c) Conjugation (d) R.D.T Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms? (a) Baculovirus (b) Salmonella typhimurium (c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) Retrovirus Which of the following are required to facilitate cloning into a vector ? (a) Origin of replication (b) Selectable marker (c) Cloning sites (d) All of these In agarose gel electrophoresis (a) DNA migrates towards the negative electrode. (b) supercoiled plamids migrate slower than their nicked counterparts. (c) larger molecules migrate faster than smaller molecules. (d) ethidium bromide can be used to visualize the DNA. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ which means (a) should increase their metabolic reactions. (b) should decrease their metabolic reactions. (c) increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium. (d) ability to divide fast. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of (a) silver or platinum (b) platinum or zinc (c) silicon or platinum (d) gold or tungsten The polymerase enzyme used in PCR is (a) DNA polymerase I (b) Taq polymerase (c) reverse transcriptase (d) restriction endonuclease The first step in the PCR is (a) denaturation (b) primer extension (c) annealing (d) cooling Which of the following processes is employed to check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion ? (a) PCR (b) Gene gun (c) Micro-injection (d) Agarose gel electrophoresis

283

26.

27.

28.

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for (a) addition of preservatives to the product. (b) purification of the product. (c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel. (d) availability of oxygen throughout the process. A device in which substances are treated to stimulate transformation by living cells is called __________. (a) assimilator (b) digester (c) bioreactor (d) agitator After completion of biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it is ready to marketing as a finished product. This series of processes is called (a) upstream processing (b) downstream processing (c) elution (d) insertional inactivation

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 29.

30.

31.

32.

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding PCR? (a) In PCR, two primers are used. (b) Taq DNA polymerase is related for PCR. (c) Taq DNA polymerase is not thermostable. (d) Multiple copies of gene can be synthesized in PCR. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A. (b) Each EcoRI restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in DNA. (c) When cut by same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments do not have the same kind of stickyends. (d) Making multiple identical copies of any template DNA is called cloning. Which statement about restriction enzymes is incorrect ? (a) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequence called recognition sites. (b) A restriction enzyme always cut DNA to leave the same sequence at the ends. (c) Some restriction enzymes cut the two DNA strands at slightly different points within their recognition site to make a ‘sticky’ end. (d) Restriction enzymes are exonucleases rather than endonucleases. Which of the following is not correct about pBR 322 vector ? (a) It was constructed by using DNA derived from naturally occurring plasmids of E coli. (b) It has two drug resistance genes-tetR and ampR. (c) It was developed by Bolivar and Rodriguez. (d) Selectable markers present in it can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their inability to produce colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

Which of the following statement is not correct about cloning vector ? (a) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. (b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants. (c) In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have single recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes. (d) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) T-DNA transform normal plant cell into a tumor. (b) Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cell into cancerous cells. (c) T plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is modified into cloning vector which is more pathogenic to plants. (d) Retrovirus have also been disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) Hind-II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of 4 base pairs. (b) Besides Hind-II, today we know more than 900 restriction enzymes. (c) The name Eco-RI comes from Escherichia coli-13. (d) Restriction endonuclease are used in genetic engineering to form recombinant molecules of DNA. Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ? (a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell. (b) It serves as a selectable marker. (c) It is isolated from a virus. (d) It remains active at high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis? (a) DNA can be seen in visible light. (b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light. (c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light. (d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light. Which of the following statements (i-iv) are correct. (i) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. (ii) E. coli cloning vector pBR 322 shows several restriction, Ori antibiotic resistance genes and rop.

39.

40.

41.

(iii) The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product. (iv) Competent bacterial cell cannot take up the plasmid. (a) All of the above (b) None of the above (c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) Only (iv) Which of the following statements are incorrect. (i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology. (ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vector. (iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome. (iv) Ethidium bromide can not be used for staining DNA. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) All of these (d) None of these Which of the given statements (i-iv) are correct about bioreactor? (i) Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for obtaining the desired product. (ii) Raw materials are biological which are converted into specific products. (iii) Stirred-tank reactor is horizontal in shape. (iv) Large volume of culture cannot be processed. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these Molecular probes used for identification of recombinant clone carrying the desired DNA insert can be (i) denatured double stranded DNA probes. (ii) double stranded RNA probes. (iii) protein probes. (iv) single stranded DNA probes. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) All of these

EBD_7209

Biology

284

Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 44.

45.

46.

Assertion : DNA is cleaved at specific site by all endonucleases. Reason : Endonucleases are found in viruses. Assertion : Restriction endonucleases have been designated as molecular scissors. Reason : Fragments produced by restr iction endonucleases upon mixing join due to their sticky ends. Assertion : Insertion of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of b-galactosidase results in colourless colonies. Reason : Presence of insert results in inactivation of enzyme b-galactosidase known as insertional inactivation.

285

50.

51.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 47.

48.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. Column - I Column - II A. Plasmid I. Selectable marker B. amp II. Extrachromosomal DNA C. Ti-plasmid III. Enzyme D. Chitinase IV. Agrobacterium tumefaciens (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III Match the items of column-I with those in column-II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Recombinant I. Vector DNA technology B. Cloning vehicles II. Sealing enzyme C. Macromolecular III. Electrophoresis separation D. DNA ligase IV.. Genetic engineering (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

49.

(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. EcoRI I. Bacilius amyloliquefaciens B. Bam HI II. Haemophilus influenza C. Hind III III. Escherichia coli D. pBR 322 IV. Artificial plasmid (a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III

52.

Match column-I with column-II and identify the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Restriction enzyme I. Jumping gene B. Transposons II. Cloning vehicle C. Bacteriophage III. Hind III D. Palindromes IV. MALAYALAM (a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III Match column-I with column-II and select the correct combination from the option given below. Column - I Column - II A. Competent I. Thermus aquaticus B. Taq DNA polymerase II. Antibiotic C. Ampicillin III. Micro-injection D. Ethidium bromide IV. DNA staining (a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below. Column - I Column - II A. PCR I. Large scale culture B. Bioreactor II. To induce alien DNA in host cell C. Gene gun III. Restriction endonuclease D. EcoRI IV. Amplification of gene (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

53.

(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III Match Column I with Column II and identify the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Primers I. PCR B. Separation and II. C2H5OH purification of products C. Precipitation of DNA III. Uptake of foreign DNA by bacterium D. Transformation IV. Down stream processing (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III

54.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (a) Agarose – Sea weeds (b) Thermus aquaticus – ‘T - DNA’ (c) Plasmid DNA – Vector (d) Sal I – Restriction endonuclease

57.

The given figure shows a simple stirred tank bioreactor with their parts labelled as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C and D. A C

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 55.

The given figure shows the E.Coli cloning vector PBR322 showing restriction sites. Some parts are labelled as A, B, C & D. Choose the option showing the correct labelling. Cla I

Hind III

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Pvu I B

Pst I C

B-pH control; B-Motor; B-Sterile air; B-Sterile air;

C-Foam braker; C-Foam braker; C-Motor; C-pH control;

D-Sterile air D-Sterile air D-Foam braker D-Foam braker

Identify the correct match for the given apparatus.

Sal I

pBR 322 D

58.

tetR

A-Motor; A-pH control; A-pH control; A-Motor;

rop

Pvu II

B join foreign

DNA to plasmid

59.

(Cutting both foreign DNA and vector DNA at specific Vector Foreign DNA point) DNA A (plasmid)

Apparatus Function (a) Gene gun Vectorless direct gene transfer (b) Column Separation of chlorophyll chromatography pigments (c) Sparged stirred tank Carry out fermentation bioreactor process (d) Respirometer Finding out rate of respiration Identify the correct match of the technique with their role shown in the given figure. Walls Largest Smallest

56.

A B C D (a) Hind I EcoR I ampR ori (b) Hind I BamH I kanR ampR (c) BamH I Pst I ori ampR (d) EcoR I BamH I ampR ori Which one of the following option is correct for A, B and C marked in the given diagram of recombinant DNA technology.

C E.coli Cells Divide

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A-Exonuclease; B-Ligases; C-Transformation A-Endonuclease; B-gyrase; C-Transformation A-Exonuclease; B-Hydrolase; C-Transduction A-Restriction endonuclease; B-Ligases; C-Transformation

(a) Electrophoresis – Differential migration of DNA fragments (b) Column – Separation of chlorophyll chromatography pigments (c) Gene cloning – Technique of obtaining identical copies of a particular DNA or a gene segment (d) Microinjection – Technique of introducing foreign genes into a host cell

EBD_7209

Biology

286

Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 60.

287

The figure given below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents? Region to be amplified

65.

66.

67.

Amplified (~1billion times)

(a) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands. (b) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C. (c) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase. (d) A - Annealing with two sets of primers.

68.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 61.

62.

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Restriction endonucleases (a) are enzymes that process pre-RNA’s. (b) are enzymes that degrade DNA. (c) protect bacterial cells from viral infection. (d) None of the above The same basic techniques can be used to analyze the DNA from species as diverse as bacteria and humans because: (a) all cells are identical. (b) every organism has the same amount of DNA. (c) the DNA sequences of all organisms are the same. (d) DNA has a consistent structure in all organisms. A gene is said to be cloned if (a) the DNA sequence of the gene is known. (b) the function of the gene is known. (c) there is a DNA probe for the gene. (d) the gene has been isolated and copied. Introduction of one or more genes into an organism which normally does not possess them or their deletion by using

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artificial means (not by breeding) comes under a branch. called ________ . (a) molecular biology (b) cytogenetics (c) genetic hybridization (d) genetic engineering DNA fragments are separated using gel electrophoresis (a) because DNA is pulled through the gel towards the negative end of the field. (b) because larger DNA fragments move faster through the gel than smaller DNA fragments. (c) to identify and isolate DNA fragments. (d) to synthesize DNA for cloning. DNA ligases are enzymes that can be used to (a) chop a large DNA molecule into small fragments. (b) copy DNA fragments. (c) insert the DNA from one species into the DNA of another species. (d) separate DNA fragments based on their size. Imagine a gel through which DNA fragments have moved in response to an applied electrical current. The band on this gel that is farthest from the top (that is, from the place where the DNA fragments were added to the “well”) represents the (a) shortest fragments of DNA. (b) longest fragments of DNA. (c) restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA into fragments. (d) ligase used to bind the DNA fragments together. A biologist intends to use a polymerase chain reaction to perform a genetic task. The biologist probably is trying to (a) discover new genes. (b) clone a gene. (c) cut DNA into many small fragments. (d) isolate DNA from a living cell. In genetic engineering, where genes can be inserted from one organism into another or back into the original organism uses which of the following techniques? (a) Polymerase chain reaction (b) Gene gun (c) DNA hybridization (d) Gel electrophoresis Which of the following is not necessary to execute a polymerase chain reaction successfully? (a) All four DNA bases (b) Short DNA base primers (c) DNA polymerase (d) DNA library Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for (a) DNA finger printing. (b) Disarming pathogen vectors. (c) Transformation of plant cells. (d) Constructing recombinant DNA molecules.

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The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with (a) DNA ligase (b) endonucleases (c) DNA polymerase (d) exonucleases Plasmid present in bacterial cells are (a) circular double helical DNA molecules. (b) linear double helical DNA molecules. (c) circular double helical RNA molecules. (d) linear double helical RNA molecules. What must be done before placing DNA into the electrophoretic chamber ? (a) It must be ground up with mortar and pestle. (b) It must be cut by restriction endonucleases. (c) It must be treated with RNAase . (d) None of the above Which of the following has the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells in animals ? (a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (b) Retroviruses (c) DNA-viruses (d) Plasmids What are the properties of a good vector? (a) It should be ideally more than 10 kb in size. (b) It should be able to replicate autonomously. (c) It should have suitable marker genes. (d) It should not be easy to isolate and purify. A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is called (a) DNA replication (b) genetic engineering (c) denaturation (d) renaturation Restriction endonucleases hydrolyzes polynucleotide from (a) only the 5¢ end. (b) from either terminal. (c) at an internal phosphodiester bond. (d) a phosphodiester bond within a specific sequence. Restriction-modification systems of bacteria exist to (a) protect bacteria from invading foreign DNA. (b) promote conjugation. (c) help the bacterial chromosome to replicate. (d) encourage recombination of new genetic material. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants? (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) Pseudomonas putida (d) All of the above

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Which of the following process require energy? (a) Ligation (b) Transformation (c) Restriction digestion (d) Hybridization In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their (a) charge only (b) size only (c) charge to size ratio (d) all of these Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which (a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule. (b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase. (c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase. (d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule. What type of enzyme is used in recombinant DNA technology to split a specific sugar phosphate bond in each strand of a DNA double helix ? (a) Esterase (b) Restriction enzyme (c) Lipase (d) Ligase The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of (a) insertional inactivation of alphaga-lactosidase in nonrecombinant bacteria. (b) insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria. (c) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria. (d) non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase. Genetic engineering is possible, because (a) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNase I. (b) restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro. (c) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood. (d) we can see DNA by electron microscope.

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency? (a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato (b) Canolla (c) Golden rice (d) Bt-Brinjal Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel (a) bio-fertilizers (b) bio-metallurgical techniques (c) bio-mineralization processes (d) bio-insecticidal plants The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for (a) insect-resistance (b) enhancing shelf life (c) enhancing mineral content (d) drought-resistance Bt toxin kill the larvae of certain insects (a) by binding of activated toxin on mid gut epithelial cells, creating pores, leading to swelling and lysis. (b) by stopping transcription of larval cells. (c) by altering central dogma taking place in the cells of gut of larva. (d) by stopping protein synthesis. Cry protein is obtained from (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Bacillus subtilis (c) Clostridium welchi (d) E. coli Cry-genes have been introduced in (a) cotton and corn (b) rice (c) potato and soyabean (d) all of the above

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Chapter

Biotechnology and its Applications

Bt toxin is harmful to insects like (a) lepidoterans (tobacco budworm, armyworms) (b) coleopterans (beetles) (c) dipterans (flies and mosquito) (d) all of the above RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been devised to protect the plants from nematode is silenced by ______ produced by the host plant. (a) dsDNA (b) ssDNA (c) dsRNA (d) target proteins Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells) (a) both sense and anti-sense RNA. (b) a particular hormone. (c) an antifeedant. (d) a toxic protein. C-peptide of human insulin is (a) a part of mature insulin molecule. (b) responsible for formation of disulphide bridges. (c) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin. (d) responsible for its biological activity. The first human drug made using recombinant DNA technology was (a) glyphosatase (b) TPA (c) insulin (d) erythropoietin E. coli are used in production of (a) rifampicin (b) LH (c) ecdysone (d) interferon The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old girl with enzyme deficiency of (a) adenosine deaminase (ADA) (b) tyrosine oxidase (c) monamine oxidase (d) glutamate dehydrogenase

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In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by (a) bone marrow transplantation (b) enzyme replacement therapy (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above The site of production of ADA in the body is (a) bone marrow (b) lymphocytes (c) blood plasma (d) monocytes Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using (a) restriction enzymes (b) cloning vectors (c) DNA probes (d) gene targets DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called ___________ . (a) vector (b) probe (c) clone (d) plasmid The transgenic animals are those which have (a) foreign DNA in some cells. (b) foreign DNA in all of their cells. (c) foreign RNA in all of their cells. (d) both (a) and (c) Today, transgenic models exist for many human diseases which includes (i) Cancer (ii) Cystic fibrosis (iii) Rheumatoid arthritis (iv) Alzhiemer’s disease (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (d) all of these The protein a-1 antitrypsin is used to treat the (a) cancer (b) rheumatoid arthritis (c) Alzheimer’s disease (d) emphysema Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of (a) fish (b) mice (c) cow (d) pig GEAC stands for (a) Genome Engineering Action Committee (b) Ground Environment Action Committee (c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (d) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee How many varieties of rice has been estimated to be present in India? (a) 2,000 (b) 20,000 (c) 200,000 (d) 2,000,000 Which variety of rice was patented by a U.S. company even though the highest number of varieties of this rice is found in India ? (a) Sharbati Sonara (b) Co-667 (c) Basmati (d) Lerma Roja

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Biopiracy is related to (a) bioresearches (b) traditional knowledge (c) biomolecules and genes discovered (d) all of the above The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment is called (a) bioethics (b) biopiracy (c) bioterror (d) bioweapon Which step of Government of India has taken to cater requirement of patent terms and other emergency provisions in this regard ? (a) Biopiracy act (b) Indian patents bill (c) RTI act (d) Negotiable instruments act

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 28.

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Which of the following statement is correct about Bt toxin ? (a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus. (b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilize it and thus prevent its multiplication. (c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins. (d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut. Find out the incorrect statement. (a) Human protein used to treat emphysema is a-1 antitrypsin. (b) Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of Agrobacterium tumefaciens. (c) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced human protein enriched milk. (d) Cry I Ab endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis is effective against corn borers. Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Genetic Engineering Approval committee (GEAC) ? (a) It will make decision regarding the validity of GM research. (b) It will make the safety of introducing GM - organism for public services. (c) Its genetic modification of organism can have unpredictable results when such organisms are introduced into the ecosystem. Therefore, the Indian government has set up organisation such as GEAC. (d) All of the above

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Biotechnology and its Applications 31.

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Which one of the following statement is correct? (a) The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab control cotton bollworms. (b) Protein encoded by cry I Ab controls corn borer. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Proteins encoded by cry I Ac and cry I Ab control flies. Which of the following is a correct statement? (a) “Bt” in Bt-cotton indicates that it is genetically modified organism produced through biotechnology. (b) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired genes. (c) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds. (d) “Flavr Savr” variety of tomato has enriched the production of ethylene which improves its taste. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) The procedure for chemical safety testing / toxicity is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs. (b) Transgenic animals are more sensitive to the toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. (c) Golden rice, a genetically engineered rice has high vitamin A (retinol) content. (d) All of the above Which of the following statements is correct? (a) The current interest in the manipulation of microbes, plants and animal has raised serious ethical issues. (b) One possible risk of genetic engineering is the accidental production of dangerously resistant microorganisms. (c) Although risks are possible, genetic engineering appears to offer more of contribution to human welfare than threats. (d) All of the above Select the correct statement. (a) Genetic engineering works only on animals and has not yet been successfully used on plants. (b) There are no risks associated with DNA technology. (c) The first step in PCR is heat which is used to separate both the strands of target DNA. (d) DNA from one organism will not bond to DNA from another animal. Which of the following statements (i - v) is/are incorrect ? (i) Recombinant DNA technology is used to improve crop plants by increasing their productivity, by making them more nutritious and by developing disease resistant. (ii) Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm infestation.

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(iii) Bacillus thuringiensis can form cry protein during any phase of their growth. (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis is not harmed by self cry protein because of its occurrence as protoxin (inactive). (v) Protoxin cry protein is changed into active cry protein in the stomach of insects due to alkaline pH in stomach. (a) Only (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) All of these (d) None of these Read the following four statements (i-iv) and answer the question ? (i) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactal albumin enriched. (ii) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules. (iii) Downstream processing is one of the steps of RDNA technology. (iv) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host. Which are the two statements having mistakes? (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii) Read the following statements and choose the correct statements. (i) Gene therapy has been tested on a large number of patients with a wider variety of inherited genetic disorders, and in numerous cases it has produced a complete cure. (ii) Genetic engineering has been used to produce insulin for curing the diabetes. (iii) DNA hybridization is the base pairing of DNA from two different sources. (iv) Genetic engineering is a technique of plant breeding. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect? (i) Insulin was originally extracted from pancreas of slaughtered pigs and cattle. (ii) Animal insulin is difficult to obtain. (iii) Animal insulin is identical to human insulin. (iv) Non-human insulin caused some patients to develop allergy. (v) Recombinant insulin is actually obtained from E. coli in bacterial cell. (a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (v)

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Transgenic animals are produced (i) to study how genes are regulated and how they affect the normal functions of body and its development. (ii) to study diseases. (iii) to obtain useful biological products . (iv) to test vaccine safety and chemical safety. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (i) When a patient with defective ADA was treated, which of the following steps was performed for gene therapy? (i) Lymphocytes were obtained from the patients. (ii) Lymphocytes are transferred to culture dishes. (iii) Lymphocytes were transfected with normal ADA genes. (iv) The transfected cells are returned to the patients. (a) All of these (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iv) (d) SCID cannot be treated The given statements are the steps in one type of gene therapy. (i) Inject engineered cells into patients bone marrow. (ii) Viral DNA carring the normal allele inserts into chromosome. (iii) Let retrovirus infect bone marrow cells that have removed from patient and cultured. (iv) Insert RNA version of normal allele into retrovirus. The correct sequence is (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i) (c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii) (d) (iv), (iii), (i) and (ii)

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MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 48.

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Reason : In this, production of pectin degrading Polygalactouronase is blocked. Assertion : ELISA is based on the principle of antigen antibody interaction. Reason : Pathogen infection is usually detected by presence of antigens or detection of antibodies synthesized against the pathogen. Assertion : The GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) has been set up by the Indian Government. Reason : Introduction of GMO could have unpredictable result in the ecosystem.

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Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below : Column - I Column - II A. Escherichia coli I. nif gene B. Bacillus thuringiensis II. Interferon C. Rhizobium meliloti III. Bt toxin D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens IV. Vector (a) A – II; B – I; C – (IV); D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – (III); D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III Match the items given in column - I with those in column - II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. GMO I. Increased shelf life B. Flavr - Savr tomato II. Bioresources C. Biopiracy III. rDNA D. E.coli IV. Insulin (a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III Match column-I with column-II and identify the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Gene therapy I. Rhizobium B. Biofertilizer II. Cry gene C. Bt cotton III. SCID D. Humulin IV. Diabetes (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Golden Rice I. Cry protein B. Bt toxin II. Rich in vitamin A C. RNAi III. First trangenic cow D. Rosie IV. Gene silencing

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(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column - I Column - II A. Forensic science I. AIDS B. ELISA II. Radioactive DNA/RNA C. Probe III. Emphysema D. a-1-antitrypsin IV. DNA fingerprinting (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III

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DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 53.

Which of the following is the correct set of the labels A, B, C and D in the given figure of maturation of pro-insulin into insulin ?

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D (a) (b) (c) (d)

A Proinsulin Insulin Insulin Insulin

B cell peptidases cell peptidases Free C-Peptide Proinsulin

C Insulin Free C-Peptide cell peptidases Free C-Peptide

D Free C-Peptide Proinsulin Proinsulin cell peptidases

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 54.

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Transgenic plants are the ones (a) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell. (b) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium. (c) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field. (d) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium. Transgenic animals has been successfully used for producing (a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans. (b) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases.

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(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee. (d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to (a) bollworms (b) nematodes (c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism ? (a) Recombinant DNA techniques (b) X-ray diffraction (c) Heavier isotope labelling (d) Hybridization Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers? (a) Cotton (b) Brinjal (c) Soyabean (d) Maize A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is (a) golden rice (b) Bt soyabean (c) flavr - savr tomato (d) starlink maize Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID? (a) Arbovirus (b) Rotavirus (c) Retrovirus (d) Parvovirus The genetic defect, adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by (a) administering adenosine deaminase through injection (b) bone marrow transplantation (c) enzyme replacement therapy (d) introducing isolated gene from marrow cells producing ADA into the cells at early embryonic stages Genetically engineered bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of (a) human insulin (b) testosterone (c) thyroxine (d) melatonin Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM crops is to (a) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour. (b) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides. (c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides. (d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety.

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Biotechnology deals with industrial scale production of biopharmaceuticals and biological products using genetically modified (a) microbes only (b) fungi only (c) plants and animals only (d) all of the above Cry II Ab and cry I AC produce toxins that control (a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively. (b) cotton borer and cotton bollworms respectively. (c) tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively. (d) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively. Bt toxin is (a) intracellular lipids. (b) intracellular crystalline protein. (c) extracellular crystalline protein. (d) intracellular polysaccharide. RNA interference involves (a) synthesis of mRNA from DNA. (b) synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase. (c) silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA. (d) interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA. The RNAi stands for (a) RNA inactivation (b) RNA initiation (c) RNA interference (d) RNA interferon

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What is the disadvantage of using porcine insulin (from pig) in diabetic patients? (a) It leads hypercalcemia. (b) It is expensive. (c) It may cause allergic reactions. (d) It can lead to mutation in human genome. Which technique would to be completely curative in SCID ? (a) Gene therapy in adult stage. (b) Gene therapy in embryonic stage. (c) Bone marrow transplantation. (d) Enzyme replacement therapy. In order for gene therapy to be most effective, genes should be inserted in (a) WBC (b) RBC (c) stem cells (d) all of these Which of the following is based upon the principle of antigen-antibody interaction? (a) PCR (b) ELISA (c) r-DNA technology (d) RNA Deliberate alteration of genome for treatment of disease is called (a) transformation rescue (b) imprinting (c) exon shuffle (d) gene therapy

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

The term ‘precipitation’ includes (a) rain (b) snow (c) hails (d) all forms of water that fall to the ground. What are the key elements that lead to so much variations in the physical and chemical conditions of different habitats? (a) Temperature and water (b) Light and soil (c) Only temperature (d) Temperature, water, light and soil A majority of organisms which are restricted to narrow range of temperature are called as (a) stenothermal (b) endothermal (c) ectothermal (d) eurythermal A few organisms can tolerate and thrive a wide range of temperature. Such animals are called (a) stenothermal (b) eurythermal (c) thermophilic (d) ectothermal The salinity in sea water in parts per thousand (ppt) ranges between (a) 5-15% (b) 30-35% (c) 50-75% (d) more than 100% Organisms that are restricted to a narrow range of salinity, are called (a) ectohaline (b) osmoconformer (c) euryhaline (d) stenohaline Deep (>500m) in the oceans, the environment is perpetually dark and its inhabitants are not aware of the existence of a celestial source of energy called_________. (a) ATP (b) photosynthesis (c) sun (d) light Percolation and water holding capacity of soil is dependent upon (a) soil composition (b) grain size (c) aggregation (d) all of these

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Chapter

Organisms and Populations

The benthic organisms (a) live near the sea bottom. (b) found in open water. (c) always live at the depth of 50-100 m. (d) live outside water. The process in which the body’s internal environment is kept stable is known as (a) homeostasis (b) adaptation (c) geometry (d) acclimatization Which of the following is the stage of suspended development? (a) Dormancy (b) Hibernation (c) Aestivation (d) Diapause To avoid summer - related problems such as heat and dessication fish undergoes (a) hibernation (b) diapause (c) aestivation (d) none of these _____ is any attribute of the organism (morphological physiological, behavioural) that enables the organisms to survive and reproduce in its habitat. (a) Exponential growth (b) Acclimatization (c) Adaptation (d) Mutualism Seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin that acts as an (a) thermostat (b) capacitor (c) resistor (d) insulator Microbes present in hydrothermal vents where the temperature far exceed 100°C is (a) cyanobacteria (b) archaebacteria (c) eubacteria (d) none of these If the age distribution (per cent individuals of a given age or group) is plotted for the population, the resulting structure is called a/an (a) population density (b) ecological pyramid (c) population growth (d) age pyramid The age of pyramid with narrow base indicates (a) high number of young individuals. (b) low number of young individuals. (c) high number of old individuals. (d) low number of old individuals.

18. Which of the following parameter is not a part of population growth? (a) Natality (b) Mortality (c) Metapopulation (d) Emigration 19. _______________ is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and have gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration. (a) Natality (b) Mortality (c) Immigration (d) Emigration 20. The formula for logistic growth are (a) dN / dt = rN (b) rN / dN = dt

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éK - Nù éN-Kù (c) dN / dt = rN ê (d) dN / dt = rN ê ú ú ë K û ë N û In growth pattern, (1 – N/K) is (a) carrying capacity (b) intrinsic rate of natural increase (c) environmental resistance (d) biotic potential Interspecific interaction arise from the interaction of (a) individuals of a community. (b) populations and their regulatory factors. (c) populations of two different species. (d) none of the above Thorns of Acacia and cactus are the most common morphological means of (a) reproduction (b) competition (c) defence (d) economical importance Which of the following secondary compounds are produced by plants for the purpose of defences against grazers and browsers? (a) Strychnine (b) Caffeine (c) Quinine (d) All of these Connell’s elegant field experiments are related to barnacle, in which superior barnacle Balanus dominates the inter tidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle Chathamalus from that zone. This phenomenon is called (a) competitive exclusion principle (b) competitive release (c) interspecific competition (d) none of the above Cuscuta is an example of (a) ectoparasitism (b) endoparasitism (c) predation (d) brood parasitism _____________ in birds is an interesting example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and the host incubates them. (a) Bird parasitism (b) Breed parasitism (c) Brood parasitism (d) Ectoparasites Which of the following is not an example of commensalism? (a) Sea anemone and clown fish (b) Epiphyte / Orchid on mango branch (c) Liver fluke and fleas (d) Cattle egret and grazing cattle.

Biology 29. The interaction is detrimental to both the species, in (a) predation (b) commensalism (c) amensalism (d) competition 30. A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of (a) commensalism (b) amensalism (c) parasitism (d) mutualism 31. An interaction where one species is harmed while the other is unaffected is called (a) commensalism (b) competition (c) amensalism (d) parasitism

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 32. Consider the following statements (A) - (D) each with one or two blanks. A. Lichens represent an intimate (i) relationship (ii) . between a fungus and (iii) B. The are associations between fungi and the roots of higher plants. C. Plants need the help of (iv) for pollinating their flowers and dispersing their seeds. (v) D. The pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg - laying sites. Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) - (v) in the statements? (a) (i) Parasitic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) - Mycorrhizae; (iv) - Wind; (v) - Bee (b) (i) Mutualistic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) Mycorrhizae; (iv) - Animals; (v) Wasp (c) (i) Parasitic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) - Mycorrhizae; (iv) - Insect; (v) Bumblebees (d) (i) Mutualistic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) - Lichen; (iv) - Wind; (v) Wasp 33. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks.

(i) (A) Bears go into during winter to (ii) cold weather.. (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents (iii) human population. (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of (iv) . (D) An area with high levels of species richness is known (v) . as Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) to (v) in the statements? (a) (i) - hibernation, (ii) - attract, (iii) - expanding, (iv) - commensalism, (v) - biodiversity park (b) (i) - hibernation, (ii) - escape, (iii) - expanding, (iv) - mutualism, (v) - hot spot (c) (i) - aestivation, (ii) - escape, (iii) - stable, (iv) - commensalism, (v) - marsh (d) (i) - aestivation, (ii) - escape, (iii) - stable, (iv) - mutualism, (v) - hot spot

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Organisms and Populations 34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) Habitat includes both biotic and abiotic factors. (b) Abiotic and biotic components interact constantly with each other. (c) Abiotic components alone can characterize the habitat of an organism. (d) Major abiotic factors includes temperature, water, light and soil. Study the following statements and answer the question. (i) Mango trees cannot grow in temperate countries like Canada and Germany. (ii) Tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical latitude in the ocean. (iii) Snow Leopards are not found in Kerala. Which of the following factor is responsible for the above statements? (a) Light (b) Water (c) Temperature (d) Soil Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the question. (i) Temperature progressively decreases from pole to equator. (ii) Our intestine is a unique habitat for hundreds of species of microbes. (iii) Average temperature exceeds 100°C in thermal springs and hydrothermal vents. (iv) In polar areas and high altitudes temperature goes to 70°C. (v) Temperature goes to > 50°C in tropical desert in summer. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (iv) (c) (ii), (iv), (v) (d) (iii), (iv) Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (i) Light is essential for life to exist on the earth. (ii) Many species of small plants under the canopy to tall trees in forest show optimal use of available light due to having large sized antenna and higher number of thylakoids. (iii) UV rays are not harmful to many organisms. (iv) Photoperiodic requirement is essential for many plants for flowering. (v) Red algae can live in deeper water of sea because of having pigment, phycoerythrin. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) only (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) Which of the following statement is false? (a) Regulators are organisms that are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological means or sometimes by behavioural means. (b) All birds and mammals, and very few lower vertebrates and in vertebrates are capable of osmoregulation and thermoregulation. (c) Sweating and shivering are the means of thermoregulation by human. (d) Plants are capable of thermoregulation.

297

39. Identify the correct statement. (a) The smaller animals have larger surface area relative to their volume. (b) Smaller animals are rarely found in polar region. (c) Bear cannot migrate hence hibernate during winter. (d) All of the above 40. Identify the incorrect statement (i) Thermoregulation energetically least expensive process for many organisms like shrews and humming birds. (ii) 99% animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain their constant internal environment. (iii) During the course of evolution, the costs and heights of maintaining a constant internal environment are discarded. (iv) In aquatic animals, the osmotic concentration of the body fluids change with that of the ambient water osmotic concentration. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) 41. Read the following statements regarding adaptation and choose the correct option. (i) Many xerophytic plants have a thick cuticle on leaf epidermis and sunken stomata to prevent transpiration. (ii) Some xerophytic plants have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM) that enables their stomata to close during day. (iii) Opuntias has no leaves, they are reduced to spines. (iv) All adaptation are genetically fixed in all organisms. (v) In Opuntia, the pathway of photosynthesis is through C3 cycle. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (ii) (c) (iv) and (v) (d) All of these 42. Which statement explains the concept of Allen’s rule? (a) Aquatic mammals have blubber as insulator. (b) Mammals of colder climate have shorter ears and limbs. (c) Mammals of humid and warmer region have more melanin in their skin. (d) The bears undergoes hibernation during winter. 43. Mark the incorrect statement. (a) Many fishes thrive in Antarctic water where temperature is always below zero . (b) Microbes can survive in hot springs where temperature exceeds 100°C. (c) Fishes can survive even at a depth where pressure exceeds 100 atm. (d) Desert lizards have marvelous physiological ability to survive scorching heat of desert. 44. Given below are some examples associated with a type of adaptation. (i) Basking by desert lizards in sun. (ii) Hiding in burrows by some animals. (iii) Wearing of woolen clothes. (iv) Thermal gaping

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

Identify the correct option. (a) Scansorial adaptation (b) Cursorial adaptation (c) Biochemical adaptation (d) Behavioural adaptation Which of the following are the characteristics of expanding population ? (i) Pyramid - shaped age structure. (ii) An urn - shaped age structure. (iii) Pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups become more or less equal in size. (iv) Rapidly growing population with high birth rate. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding predators? (a) It keeps prey population under control. (b) It helps in maintaining species diversity. (c) It reduces intensity of competition among competing prey species. (d) Predator in nature are prudent because they do not exploit their prey. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense? (a) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother. (b) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans. (c) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair. (d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (a) The human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle. (b) The malarial parasite needs vector (mosquito to spread to other host). (c) Parasites that feed on external surface of the host organism are called endoparasites. (d) Cuscuta derives its nutrition from the host plant which it parasitises. Select the incorrect statement. (a) Overwhelming majority of animals and nearly all plants maintain a constant internal temperature. (b) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of commensalism. (c) In brood parasitism, the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host to incubate them. (d) In amensalism, one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected.

51.

52.

53.

54.

If Assertion is true but Reason is false. If both Assertion and Reason are false. Assertion : In sigmoid growth curve, population finally stabilizes itself. Reason : Finally, the death rate increases than the birth rate. Assertion : In a water body, Daphnia populations showed distinct variations in their morphology at different seasons. Reason : Variations in temperature of water bodies at different seasons influences cyclomorphosis in some organisms. Assertion : Predation is a type of interspecific interaction with a strategy based on feeding. Reason : A stable population is maintained through time by the populations of predator and their prey and rarely one population becomes abundant or scarce. Assertion : Species are groups of potentially interbreeding natural populations which are isolated from other such groups. Reason : Distinctive morphological characters are displayed due to reproductive isolation. Assertion : Cold blooded animals do not have fat layer. Reason : Cold blooded animals use their fat for metabolic process during hibernation.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 55. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct answer. Column-I A. Pacific Salmon fish B. Mammals C. Oysters D. Birds

Column-II I.

Produces a small number of large sized offspring II. Produces a large number of small sized offspring III. Breed only once in their lifetime IV. Breed many times during their lifetime

(a) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (b) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III (c) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III (d) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I 56. Match the following Population Example A. Predation I. Cuscuta and hedge plants B. Commensalism II. Balanus and Chathamalus C. Parasitism III. Cactus and moth D. Competition IV. Orchid and mango (a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I (c) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV (d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I

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57. Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option. Column II

A. Pacific salmon fish B. Nt = N0 ert

Verhulst - pearl logistic growth

II Breed only once in life time III Exponential growth

C. Oyster éK- Nù D. dN/dt = rN ê ú ë K û

(a) (b) (c) (d)

External level

Column I

IV A large number of small sized offsprings

A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 58. The given figure flows biome distribution with respect to annual temperature and precipitation. In this few parts are marked as A, B & C. Mark the correct identification from the following picture.

B C

Internal level (A)

(B)

(C)

(a)

Partial regulator Regulator

Conformers

(b)

Regulator

Conformers

Partial regulator

(c)

Conformers

Regulator

Partial regulator

(d) Regulator Partial regulator Conformers 60. What type of human population is represented by the given age pyramid?

Post-reproductive Reproductive Pre-reproductive

Expanding

Stable

Declining

(a) Expanding population (b) Vanishing population (c) Stable population (d) Declining population 61. A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them. Age 70+ 60 - 69

(A)

(B)

Female

40 - 49

(C)

(a)

Tropical forest

(b)

Temperate forest Tropical forest Coniferous forest

(c)

Temperate forest Coniferous forest Tropical forest

(d)

Coniferous forest Tropical forest Temperate forest

50 - 59

30 - 39

Temperate forest Coniferous forest

20 - 29 10 - 19

59. The given figure shows the diagram match representation of organismic response. Which option gives the correct identification of three types of organisms (marked as A, B & C) in response to abiotic factor?

0-9

15 12

0 3 ‘A’

12 15

age (in years)

Male

62. Age 70+

The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes On this basis choose the correct option to fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram.

60 - 69 Female

50 - 59 40 - 49 30 - 39 20 - 29 10 - 19

63.

–

Population Density (N)

A age (in years)

Male

(a) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration (b) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration (c) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Mortality + Emigration (d) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration Identify I to IV which affect the population density.

0-9

Immigration II 15 12

0 3 ‘B’

12 15

Population Density

Natality

(a) “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized growth rate.

IV Emigration

(b) “B” is more recent showing that population is very young. (c) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(d) “A” is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate. 64.

Mortality III

I Increase Decrease Increase Decrease

II Decrease Increase Increase Decrease

III Increase Decrease Decrease Increase

IV Decrease Increase Decrease Increase

Study the population growth curves given below. K

(i) (ii)

Population density (N) Time (t)

Which options is the best for curve (i) and (ii) ? S. No. Type of (i) curve Type of (ii) curve

Equation for curve (i)

Equation for curve (ii)

(a)

Logistic curve

æK-Nö dN = rN ç ÷ dt è K ø

dN = rN dt

(b)

Exponential curve

Logistic curve

dN = rN dt

æK-Nö dN = rN ç ÷ dt è K ø

(c)

Logistic curve

Exponential curve

dN æ K - Nö = rN ç è K ÷ø dt

dN = rN dt

(d)

Exponential curve

dN = rN dt

dN æ K - Nö = rN ç è K ø÷ dt

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Organisms and Populations 65.

301

In laboratory experiments, two species of the protist Paramecium were grown alone and in the presence of the other species. The following graphs show growth of species 1 (left) and species 2 (right), both along and when in mixed culture. Species 1

Species 2

Alone Alone Population individuals

With Species 2

With Species I

Time

Interpretation of these graphs shows that (a) competitive exclusion occurred in these experiments. (b) both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 1 is less affected. (c) both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 2 is less affected. (d) both species are affected equally by interspecific competition.

CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 66. Which one of the following do not account for the formation of major biomes? (a) Annual variation in intensity of temperature. (b) Annual variation in duration of temperature. (c) Annual variation in precipitation. (d) Annual variation in texture of soil. 67. Many freshwater fishes cannot live for long in sea water and vice-versa mainly because of the (a) variation in light intensity. (b) change in the levels of thermal tolerance. (c) osmosis. (d) spectral quality of solar radiation. 68. Factors that are important for aquatic organisms include (a) chemical composition of water (b) pH of water (c) spectral quality of solar radiation (d) both (a) and (b) 69. Many animals use the diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and photoperiod as cues timing of (a) for age only (b) reproductive activities only (c) migration only (d) all of these 70. To a large extent the vegetation in any area is determined by (a) temperature and pH. (b) pH, mineral composition and light. (c) pH, mineral composition and topography. (d) types of minerals in soil.

71. Regarding temperature and osmotic concentration nearly all plants are (a) regulator (b) conformers (c) partial regulator (d) escaper in time 72. Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions because (a) they have a smaller surface area relative to their volume. (b) they have a larger volume relative to their surface area. (c) they have smaller metabolic rate. (d) they have a larger surface area relative to their volume. 73. The kangaroo rats of North American deserts do not need to drink water because (a) they meet their water requirement through internal fat oxidation when the water is a byproduct. (b) they are able to concentrate urine, to minimize water loss. (c) they do not have sweat glands. (d) all of the above 74. Many tribes living in the high altitude of Himalayas have a (a) higher WBC count than people living in the plains. (b) lower WBC count than people living in the plains. (c) higher RBC count than people living in the plains. (d) lower RBC count than people living in the plains. 75. Population ecology is an important area of ecology because (a) it determines the interaction among organisms and between the organisms and its physical environment. (b) evolutionary changes through natural selection take place at the population level. (c) it links ecology to population genetics and evolution. (d) it links different types of communities together. 76. Natural selection operates to evolve the desired tracts at (a) cellular level (b) species level (c) community level (d) population level 77. If in a pond, there were 20 lotus last year and through reproduction 8 new plants are added, taking current population to 28, the birth rate per year is (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.8 78. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruitflies died during a specified time interval (i.e., a week), the death rate in the population during that period is (a) 1 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.4 79. In an age pyramid, the number of individuals of reproductive age is lesser than pre-reproductive but higher than post reproductive ones. The population is (a) growing (b) declining (c) stable (d) can not be predicted 80. The age structure of a population influences population growth because (a) younger females have more offsprings than do older females. (b) different age groups have different reproductive capabilities. (c) the more individuals that are immature the slower the population will grow. (d) a shorter generation time results in slower population growth.

81. If N is the population density at time t, then its density at time t + 1 is (a) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) + (D + E)] (b) Nt + 1 = Nt – [(B + I) + (D + E)] (c) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)] (d) Nt + 1 = Nt – [(B + I) – (D + E)] 82. The two basic processes which contribute to a increase in population density are (a) mortality and immigration (b) natality and immigration (c) mortality and emigration (d) mortality and emigration 83. The integral form of the exponential growth equation is (a) Nt = N0e–rt (b) N0 = Ntert (c) Nt = N0ert (d) rN = Ntert 84. Assume that you have been studying a population of cattails at the edge of a pond. After 10 years of observations, you notice that the population has remained steady. What is the most likely explanation? (a) The birth rate and death rate are both increasing at the same rate. (b) The pond is drying up. (c) The carrying capacity of pond has been reached. (d) Nutrients levels in pond are fluctuating. 85. Organisms with very high intrinsic growth rates have (a) long generation times. (b) short generation times. (c) no courtship behaviour. (d) no carrying capacities. 86. In exponential growth, the increase or decrease in population size during a unit period is (a) (B + I ) – (D + E) (b) (b + d) – N (c) N × (b – d) (d) r + N

Biology 87. When certain exotic species are introduced into geographical area, they become invasive and start spreading fast because (a) they have high reproductive rate. (b) they produce chemicals to inhibit the growth of other organisms. (c) there is no competition. (d) the invaded land does not have its natural predators. 88. Which of the following adaptation do not lessen the impact of predation? (a) Some species of insects and frogs are camouflaged. (b) Some animals are poisonous. (c) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful due to having certain chemical in their bodies. (d) Different feeding habits of finches. 89. Mac Arthur observed that five closely related species of Warblers living on the same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to (a) cooperation in their foraging efforts. (b) behavioural differences in their foraging activities. (c) different kinds of insects they eat. (d) all of the above 90. The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced on the island. This is apparently due to (a) lower intrinsic rate of goat. (b) the greater browsing efficiency of the goats. (c) limiting resource. (d) superiority of the goat. 91. Gause’s ‘competitive exclusion principle’ states that (a) humans are the most widespread agents of disturbance. (b) in a competition for similar resource both the participants are benefitted. (c) in a competition, both the participants are excluded. (d) two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1.

An (a) (b) (c)

ecosystem is a group of components that interact with one another. group of interacting species in one place at one time. biological community and component of the physical environment with which the community interacts. (d) group of interacting chemicals and their cycles. Which of the following is/are example(s) of man-made ecosystem? (a) Herbarium (b) Crop fields (c) Aquarium (d) Both (b) and (c) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called (a) enumeration (b) stratification (c) species composition (d) none of these Which one of the following is not an abiotic component? (a) Temperature (b) Decomposers (c) Water (d) Soil In an ecosystem abiotic components includes which of the following ? (a) Flow of energy (b) Cycling of materials (c) Consumers (d) Flow of energy and cycling of materials Two main structural features of an ecosystem are (a) species composition and stratification (b) species composition and productivity (c) productivity and energy flow (d) nutrient cycling and stratification Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of an ecosystem gives its (a) productivity (b) stratification (c) species composition (d) all of these Primary productivity (a) is equal to the standing crop of an ecosystem. (b) is greatest in freshwater ecosystems. (c) is the rate of conversion of light to chemical energy in an ecosystem. (d) is inverted in some aquatic ecosystems.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

Chapter

Ecosystem

The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem’s (a) net primary productivity (b) gross secondary productivity (c) net secondary productivity (d) gross primary productivity Which of the following most often limits the primary productivity of the ecosystem ? (a) Solar radiation/light (b) Oxygen (c) Consumers (d) Nitrogen What is the annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere? (a) 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. (b) 165 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. (c) 160 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. (d) 155 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Which one of the following process help the watersoluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts? (a) Fragmentation (b) Leaching (c) Catabolism (d) Humification How much portion of the photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is captured by the plants? (a) 5 – 10% (b) 7 – 10% (c) 8 – 10% (d) 2 – 10% Energy flow in an ecosystem is (a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional (c) multidirectional (d) all of these Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time is known as (a) catabolism (b) standing crop (c) humification (d) primary productivity Ecosystems are ______ because resources ____ move from one ecosystem to another. (a) open; can (b) closed; cannot (c) one-way; can (d) one-way; cannot Energy pyramids are used to represent energy transfer in an ecosystem because energy is _______ between each trophic level. (a) gained (b) lost (c) conserved (d) either conserved or gained

18.

19.

The primary difference between sedimentary and atmospheric cycles is that in _____ cycles the nutrient does not _____. (a) sedimentary; leave the terrestrial environment (b) sedimentary; leave the aquatic environment (c) atmospheric; leave the aquatic environment (d) sedimentary; enter the atmosphere Which one of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle ? (a) Phosphorus and carbon monoxide (b) Oxygen and nitrogen (c) Phosphate and nitrogen (d) Phosphorus and sulphur

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 20.

21.

22.

23.

Consider the following statements. (i) An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature and comprises abiotic and biotic components. (ii) Abiotic components are organic materials. (iii) Biotic components are producers, consumers and decomposers. (iv) Energy flow is bidirectional. which two statements are correct ? (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) Which one of the following statement is correct about decomposition ? (a) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, and quicker if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water - soluble substances like sugars. (b) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water - soluble substances like sugars, and quicker if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. (c) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in cellulose, and quicker if detritus is rich in phosphorus. (d) Decomposition rate is quicker if detritus is rich in lignin, and lower if detritus is rich in sulphur. Which one of the following statement is correct? (a) Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition. (b) Warm and moist environment inhibit decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis favour decomposition. (c) Warm moist environment and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition whereas low temperature favours decomposition. (d) Warm and low temperature inhibit decomposition whereas anaerobiosis favours decomposition. Which of the following is not a hypothesis for why foodchain length is limited? (a) Food-chain length is limited by one organism’s ability to consume another. (b) Food-chain length is limited because they are easily disrupted by environmental perturbations.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

(c) Food-chain length is limited by productivity. (d) Food-chain length is a function of an ecosystem’s physical structure. Which of the following is not true for a pyramid of productivity? (a) Only about 10% of the energy in one trophic level is passed into the next level. (b) Because of the loss of energy at each trophic level, most food chains are limited to three to five steps. (c) The pyramid of productivity of some aquatic ecosystems is inverted because of the large zooplankton primary - consumer level. (d) Eating grain-fed beef is an inefficient means of obtaining the energy trapped by photosynthesis. Which statement is true corresponding to the given food chain ? Grass ® Rabbits ® Snakes ® Hawks (a) Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population. (b) Each prey population has a greater biomass than its predator population. (c) Each population is omnivorous. (d) Each level of food chain returns inorganic nutrients and energy to the producer. Which two of the following statements regarding food chains are correct ? (i) Removal of 80% tigers resulted in increased growth of vegetation. (ii) Removal of most carnivores resulted in increased population of deer. (iii) Length of food chain is limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels due to energy loss. (iv) Length of food chain may vary from 2 – 3 trophic levels. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) The given statements (i - iv) are the characteristics of productivity. (i) The rate of biomass production is called productivity and is expressed in terms of a kcal m –2. (ii) Net primary productivity is rate of production of biomass during photosynthesis. (iii) Net primary productivity minus respiration loss is called net primary productivity. (iv) Primary productivity depends only on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. Identify the correct statements. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) Food chains differ from food webs in that (i) food chains are single sequence of who eats whom in a community. (ii) food chains better represent the entire community. (iii) food webs represent the complex interaction among food chains. (iv) food chain is the flow of energy in a population.

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29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Which of following is/are trend(s) in from ecological succession ? (i) An increase in complexity of species. (ii) An increase in productivity. (iii) An increase in community stability and species diversity. (iv) A decrease in non-living organic materials. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (i) An important characteristic of all communities is that their composition and structure constantly change in response to the changing environmental conditions. (ii) The climax community remains stable as long as the environment remains changed. (iiii) The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii) Which